Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ

Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ. Multiple choice questions for Class 11 Chemistry on the Structure of Atom chapter, covering key concepts like atomic models and particles.

Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ topics:

  • Early Atomic Models and Laws: MCQ 1–9
  • Discovery of the Electron and its Properties: MCQ 10–18
  • Discovery of Proton and Neutron: MCQ 19–26
  • Thomson’s Atomic Model: MCQ 27–30
  • Rutherford’s Nuclear Model: MCQ 31–37
  • Atomic Number, Mass Number, Isotopes, and Isobars: MCQ 38–41
  • Electromagnetic Radiation and Wave Nature of Light: MCQ 42–46
  • Planck’s Quantum Theory and Photoelectric Effect: MCQ 47–52
  • Atomic Spectra and Hydrogen Spectrum: MCQ 53–62
  • Bohr’s Model for Hydrogen Atom: MCQ 63–75
  • Wave-Particle Duality and Uncertainty Principle: MCQ 76–79
  • Quantum Numbers and Atomic Orbitals: MCQ 80–88
  • Principles of Electron Filling (Aufbau, Pauli, Hund): MCQ 89–94
  • Electronic Configuration of Atoms: MCQ 95–100
Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ

Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ – Online Test

Question 1: Who first proposed the existence of atoms as indivisible particles?
A. John Dalton
B. Niels Bohr
C. Indian and Greek philosophers
D. James Clerk Maxwell

Question 2: What was the original meaning of the word ‘atom’?
A. Indivisible
B. Visible
C. Complex
D. Energy

Question 3: Which scientist proposed the atomic theory on a firm scientific basis in 1808?
A. Rutherford
B. Dalton
C. Faraday
D. Bohr

Question 4: Dalton’s atomic theory helped explain which of the following laws?
A. Law of Conservation of Mass
B. Law of Multiple Proportions
C. Law of Constant Composition
D. All of the above

Question 5: According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, which law states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction?
A. Law of Multiple Proportions
B. Law of Constant Composition
C. Law of Conservation of Mass
D. Law of Electromagnetic Radiation

Question 6: Which law is based on the observation that a chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportions by mass?
A. Law of Conservation of Mass
B. Law of Multiple Proportions
C. Law of Constant Composition
D. Law of Definite Proportions

Question 7: The Law of Multiple Proportions states that:
A. Elements can form more than one compound in different proportions.
B. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed.
C. Atoms cannot be divided further.
D. All atoms of a given element are identical.

Question 8: Dalton’s atomic theory failed to explain the behavior of which of the following?
A. Cathode rays
B. Electrically charged substances
C. The periodic table
D. Electromagnetic radiation

Question 9: Who discovered that electricity passed through an electrolyte results in chemical reactions at the electrodes?
A. J.J. Thomson
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. Michael Faraday
D. Niels Bohr

Question 10: Cathode rays were discovered using which experimental setup?
A. Gold Foil Experiment
B. Cathode Ray Discharge Tube
C. Oil Drop Experiment
D. Rutherford’s Scattering Experiment

Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a property of cathode rays?
A. They travel in straight lines in the absence of an electric or magnetic field.
B. They consist of negatively charged particles.
C. They originate from the anode and move towards the cathode.
D. They cause fluorescent materials to glow.

Question 12: What conclusion was drawn from the cathode ray experiment regarding the structure of the atom?
A. Atoms are made up of subatomic particles.
B. Atoms are indivisible.
C. Atoms contain positively charged particles.
D. Atoms are electrically neutral.

Question 13: J.J. Thomson discovered the charge to mass ratio of the electron using what type of experiment?
A. Oil Drop Experiment
B. Cathode Ray Tube Experiment
C. Alpha Particle Scattering Experiment
D. X-ray Diffraction

Question 14: The charge to mass ratio of the electron is measured as:
A. $1.758820 \times 10^{11}$ C kg⁻¹
B. $9.1094 \times 10^{-31}$ C kg⁻¹
C. $1.6726216 \times 10^{-27}$ C kg⁻¹
D. $6.626 \times 10^{-34}$ J s

Question 15: Which factor does NOT influence the deflection of electrons in Thomson’s experiment?
A. The strength of the magnetic field
B. The strength of the electric field
C. The mass of the electron
D. The charge of the positive electrode

Question 16: Who determined the charge on the electron using the oil drop experiment?
A. J.J. Thomson
B. Ernest Rutherford
C. R.A. Millikan
D. Niels Bohr

Question 17: The charge on the electron was measured to be:
A. $1.758820 \times 10^{11}$ C
B. –$1.602176 \times 10^{-19}$ C
C. $9.1094 \times 10^{-31}$ C
D. $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ C

Question 18: The mass of the electron was calculated by combining Millikan’s result with Thomson’s charge to mass ratio. What is the mass of the electron?
A. $9.1094 \times 10^{-31}$ kg
B. $1.6726 \times 10^{-27}$ kg
C. 1.0087 u
D. $1.758820 \times 10^{11}$ kg

Question 19: Protons were first observed in experiments involving what type of rays?
A. Alpha rays
B. Cathode rays
C. Canal rays
D. Gamma rays

Question 20: The mass of a proton compared to that of an electron is approximately:
A. 2000 times greater
B. 1000 times smaller
C. 500 times smaller
D. Equal

Question 21: Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the neutron?
A. Ernest Rutherford
B. J.J. Thomson
C. James Chadwick
D. R.A. Millikan

Question 22: Neutrons were discovered by bombarding which material with alpha particles?
A. Gold
B. Hydrogen
C. Beryllium
D. Lead

Question 23: Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of protons?
A. They carry a negative charge.
B. They have a mass similar to that of neutrons.
C. They are found outside the nucleus.
D. They are neutrally charged.

Question 24: In what year were protons first characterized as positively charged particles?
A. 1897
B. 1906
C. 1919
D. 1932

Question 25: Neutrons have which of the following properties?
A. Negative charge and small mass
B. Positive charge and large mass
C. No charge and a mass slightly greater than that of protons
D. Negative charge and a mass equal to electrons

Question 26: Which experiment led to the discovery of positively charged particles (protons)?
A. Oil Drop Experiment
B. Gold Foil Experiment
C. Cathode Ray Tube Experiment
D. Canal Ray Experiment

Question 27: In Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model, the atom is described as:
A. A positive charge sphere with electrons scattered inside
B. A nucleus surrounded by electrons in specific orbits
C. A nucleus containing protons and neutrons
D. Electrons revolving in elliptical orbits

Question 28: Which of the following is a limitation of Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model?
A. It could not explain the overall neutrality of the atom.
B. It failed to explain the results of later experiments.
C. It predicted the existence of neutrons incorrectly.
D. It overestimated the number of protons in the nucleus.

Question 29: Thomson’s model visualizes the atom as:
A. A dense nucleus with electrons revolving around it
B. A sphere with evenly distributed mass
C. A positively charged pudding with negative electrons embedded
D. A neutral particle with no internal structure

Question 30: Which experiment led to the eventual discrediting of Thomson’s model?
A. Oil Drop Experiment
B. Rutherford’s Gold Foil Experiment
C. Millikan’s Oil Drop Experiment
D. Faraday’s Cathode Ray Discharge Experiment

Question 31: Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of the atom was based on which famous experiment?
A. Cathode Ray Tube Experiment
B. Gold Foil Experiment
C. Millikan’s Oil Drop Experiment
D. Photoelectric Effect Experiment

Question 32: What was the major observation from Rutherford’s Gold Foil Experiment?
A. Most alpha particles passed through the foil with no deflection.
B. Most alpha particles were deflected at large angles.
C. Alpha particles bounced back directly from the foil.
D. Alpha particles emitted light upon striking the foil.

Question 33: What did Rutherford conclude about the structure of the atom from his experiment?
A. Atoms consist mainly of empty space.
B. Electrons are embedded within a sphere of positive charge.
C. Protons and electrons are evenly distributed within the atom.
D. Neutrons and protons are the same particles.

Question 34: In Rutherford’s model, the nucleus is described as:
A. Large and positively charged
B. Small and neutrally charged
C. Dense and positively charged
D. Large and negatively charged

Question 35: Which of the following is NOT a conclusion of Rutherford’s experiment?
A. The atom is mostly empty space.
B. The nucleus contains protons and neutrons.
C. The nucleus is positively charge
D.
D. Electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits.

Question 36: Rutherford’s model was unable to explain which of the following?
A. The existence of the atomic nucleus
B. The arrangement of electrons around the nucleus
C. The mass of the proton
D. The existence of neutrons

Question 37: What feature of Rutherford’s model resembles the solar system?
A. The electrons are stationary around the nucleus.
B. The nucleus plays the role of the Sun, and the electrons revolve like planets.
C. The atom is filled with dense matter.
D. Neutrons act like planets revolving around protons.

Question 38: The atomic number of an element is defined as the number of:
A. Electrons in an atom
B. Protons in the nucleus
C. Neutrons in the nucleus
D. Nucleons in the nucleus

Question 39: What does the mass number of an atom represent?
A. The number of protons
B. The number of neutrons
C. The total number of protons and neutrons
D. The total number of electrons

Question 40: Isobars are atoms with:
A. The same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
B. The same mass number but different atomic numbers
C. The same number of electrons but different mass numbers
D. Identical atomic numbers and mass numbers

Question 41: Isotopes of an element differ in the number of:
A. Protons
B. Electrons
C. Neutrons
D. Nucleons

Question 42: Which theory explains the wave nature of light?
A. Bohr’s Theory
B. Planck’s Quantum Theory
C. Maxwell’s Electromagnetic Theory
D. Rutherford’s Nuclear Theory

Question 43: What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
A. $3.0 \times 10^6$ m/s
B. $3.0 \times 10^8$ m/s
C. $6.022 \times 10^{23}$ m/s
D. $9.11 \times 10^{-31}$ m/s

Question 44: The relationship between frequency ($\nu$), wavelength ($\lambda$), and speed of light (c) is given by which equation?
A. E = mc²
B. c = $\nu\lambda$
C. F = ma
D. P = IV

Question 45: Electromagnetic radiation consists of:
A. Oscillating electric and magnetic fields
B. Pure energy with no charge
C. Charged particles
D. Neutral particles

Question 46: Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible to the human eye?
A. Infrared
B. Radio waves
C. Ultraviolet
D. Visible light

Question 47: Planck’s Quantum Theory proposed that energy is:
A. Continuous
B. Quantized
C. Infinite
D. Constant

Question 48: The smallest unit of electromagnetic energy, according to Planck, is called a:
A. Photon
B. Electron
C. Proton
D. Neutron

Question 49: Which experiment demonstrated the particle nature of light by ejecting electrons from a metal surface?
A. Rutherford’s Gold Foil Experiment
B. Millikan’s Oil Drop Experiment
C. Photoelectric Effect
D. Cathode Ray Tube Experiment

Question 50: Who provided the explanation of the photoelectric effect using Planck’s Quantum Theory?
A. J.J. Thomson
B. Albert Einstein
C. Niels Bohr
D. James Chadwick

Question 51: The energy of a photon is related to its:
A. Wavelength and speed
B. Frequency and speed
C. Mass and velocity
D. Frequency and wavelength

Question 52: Which of the following statements about the photoelectric effect is true?
A. The energy of the ejected electrons depends on the intensity of light.
B. No electrons are emitted below a certain threshold frequency.
C. All metals have the same threshold frequency.
D. Electrons are emitted regardless of the light frequency.

Question 53: Emission spectra occur when:
A. Atoms absorb energy and move to a higher energy state
B. Atoms release energy and return to a lower energy state
C. Atoms collide and produce sound
D. Atoms are neutralized

Question 54: Which series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to visible light?
A. Lyman series
B. Balmer series
C. Paschen series
D. Brackett series

Question 55: Which element was first discovered through its spectrum in the Sun?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen

Question 56: The Rydberg formula is used to predict the wavelengths of:
A. Radio waves
B. Infrared radiation
C. X-rays
D. Hydrogen spectral lines

Question 57: Which of the following statements is true regarding atomic line spectra?
A. They are continuous and show all wavelengths of light.
B. Each element has a unique line spectrum.
C. All elements emit the same lines in their spectra.
D. Line spectra can only be observed in solid elements.

Question 58: What does a line spectrum indicate about the energy levels in an atom?
A. Energy levels are continuous.
B. Energy levels are quantized.
C. Atoms contain no energy.
D. Atoms have infinite energy levels.

Question 59: In which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does the Lyman series of hydrogen spectral lines appear?
A. Visible region
B. Ultraviolet region
C. Infrared region
D. Radio wave region

Question 60: The Paschen series of hydrogen spectral lines appears in which region?
A. Visible region
B. Infrared region
C. Ultraviolet region
D. X-ray region

Question 61: Who first observed and studied the line spectrum of hydrogen?
A. Albert Einstein
B. Niels Bohr
C. Johann Balmer
D. James Chadwick

Question 62: What is the significance of the Rydberg constant in atomic spectra?
A. It is used to calculate the energy of protons.
B. It helps predict the wavelengths of hydrogen spectral lines.
C. It determines the mass of an electron.
D. It defines the velocity of light in a vacuum.

Question 63: According to Bohr’s Model, the electron in a hydrogen atom moves in:
A. Random orbits
B. Fixed circular orbits
C. Elliptical orbits
D. Stationary positions

Question 64: Bohr’s model of the atom is based on which of the following concepts?
A. Electrons are stationary
B. Energy levels are continuous
C. Electrons exist in quantized orbits
D. Electrons do not interact with the nucleus

Question 65: Which of the following postulates is NOT part of Bohr’s Model?
A. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.
B. Electrons emit radiation when transitioning to a lower orbit.
C. The energy of an electron increases as it moves closer to the nucleus.
D. Electrons absorb energy to move to higher energy orbits.

Question 66: The energy absorbed or emitted during a transition between two energy levels is:
A. Proportional to the mass of the electron
B. Equal to the sum of the energy of both orbits
C. Equal to the difference between the energies of the two levels
D. Independent of the orbit radii

Question 67: Bohr’s model explains the stability of the atom by assuming that:
A. Electrons are stationary in their orbits
B. Electrons emit continuous radiation
C. Electrons do not radiate energy in stable orbits
D. The nucleus emits energy

Question 68: Which of the following is a limitation of Bohr’s Model?
A. It applies only to atoms with one electron.
B. It successfully predicts spectra for all elements.
C. It explains the existence of subatomic particles.
D. It describes the behavior of multi-electron atoms.

Question 69: In Bohr’s model, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is:
A. Directly proportional to n
B. Inversely proportional to n²
C. Directly proportional to n²
D. Independent of n

Question 70: What is the energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen (n = 1)?
A. –$2.18 \times 10^{-18}$ J
B. –13.6 eV
C. –$1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C
D. –$9.11 \times 10^{-31}$ J

Question 71: In Bohr’s Model, the ground state refers to the electron’s:
A. Highest energy level
B. First orbit (n = 1)
C. Ionization level
D. Transition between orbits

Question 72: Bohr’s model can also be applied to which of the following types of ions?
A. Multi-electron atoms
B. Hydrogen-like ions such as He⁺ and Li²⁺
C. Ions with more neutrons than protons
D. Ions with unpaired electrons

Question 73: For hydrogen-like ions, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is:
A. Directly proportional to the atomic number (Z)
B. Inversely proportional to Z²
C. Directly proportional to Z²
D. Independent of Z

Question 74: The radius of the electron orbit in hydrogen-like ions is:
A. Directly proportional to the atomic number
B. Inversely proportional to Z
C. Independent of the atomic number
D. Equal to the radius of the hydrogen atom

Question 75: Which of the following expressions represents the energy levels for hydrogen-like ions (with atomic number Z)?
A. $E_n = –2.18 \times 10^{-18} Z/n^2$
B. $E_n = Z/n$
C. $E_n = Z^2/n^2$
D. $E_n = –1.602 \times 10^{-19} Z^2$

Question 76: The wave-particle duality of matter was proposed by:
A. Albert Einstein
B. Max Planck
C. Louis de Broglie
D. Niels Bohr

Question 77: Which principle states that the exact position and momentum of a particle cannot be simultaneously determined?
A. Bohr’s Postulate
B. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
C. Planck’s Quantum Theory
D. Pauli Exclusion Principle

Question 78: According to the de Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of a particle is:
A. Directly proportional to its mass
B. Inversely proportional to its mass
C. Directly proportional to its velocity
D. Inversely proportional to its energy

Question 79: The de Broglie wavelength is significant for which type of particles?
A. Macroscopic particles
B. Subatomic particles
C. Neutrons only
D. Positively charged ions

Question 80: The principal quantum number (n) defines:
A. The shape of an orbital
B. The size and energy of an orbital
C. The orientation of an orbital
D. The spin of an electron

Question 81: The azimuthal quantum number (l) determines:
A. The orientation of an orbital
B. The energy of an electron
C. The shape of an orbital
D. The spin of an electron

Question 82: For a given principal quantum number (n), the possible values of the azimuthal quantum number (l) range from:
A. 0 to n-1
B. 1 to n
C. 0 to n
D. –n to +n

Question 83: The magnetic quantum number ($m_l$) represents:
A. The size of the orbital
B. The orientation of the orbital in space
C. The shape of the orbital
D. The energy of the electron

Question 84: For an s-orbital, the azimuthal quantum number (l) is:
A. 1
B. 0
C. 2
D. 3

Question 85: The p-orbitals have how many possible orientations?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question 86: The spin quantum number ($m_s$) has which possible values?
A. 0, 1
B. +1, –1
C. +½, –½
D. 0, –1

Question 87: Which orbital type has a dumbbell shape?
A. s-orbital
B. p-orbital
C. d-orbital
D. f-orbital

Question 88: The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an orbital is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Question 89: The Aufbau principle states that electrons are added to orbitals in order of:
A. Increasing orbital size
B. Decreasing orbital energy
C. Increasing orbital energy
D. Random orbital selection

Question 90: According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle, no two electrons in the same atom can have the same:
A. Energy level
B. Set of quantum numbers
C. Orbital shape
D. Spin

Question 91: Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity states that:
A. Electrons fill orbitals of lower energy first
B. Two electrons must occupy each orbital
C. Electrons must occupy orbitals singly before pairing
D. Orbitals must be filled randomly

Question 92: According to Hund’s Rule, which of the following configurations is correct for a p orbital?
A. ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
B. ↑↓ ↑ ↑
C. ↑ ↑ ↑
D. ↑↓ ↑ ↑

Question 93: The Aufbau principle explains the arrangement of electrons in:
A. Electrons with higher energies first
B. The most stable and lowest energy configuration
C. Random distribution of electrons
D. Electrons being paired first

Question 94: Which rule ensures that electrons in an atom minimize repulsion by occupying separate orbitals?
A. Pauli Exclusion Principle
B. Aufbau Principle
C. Hund’s Rule
D. Bohr’s Postulates

Question 95: The electronic configuration of an atom describes:
A. The number of protons in the nucleus
B. The arrangement of electrons in an atom’s orbitals
C. The atomic mass
D. The chemical reactivity of the atom

Question 96: The electronic configuration of oxygen (atomic number 8) is:
A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
B. 1s² 2s² 2p²
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
D. 1s² 2p⁶

Question 97: What is the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11)?
A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹
B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3p¹
D. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²

Question 98: Which element has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³?
A. Phosphorus
B. Sulfur
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine

Question 99: The element with an atomic number of 10 has the electronic configuration:
A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
B. 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
D. 1s² 2p⁶

Question 100: Which of the following elements has a half-filled p-orbital in its ground state?
A. Carbon (C)
B. Nitrogen (N)
C. Oxygen (O)
D. Fluorine (F)

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