Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants MCQ Class 12. Class 12 questions on sexual reproduction in plants. Learn about flowers, pollination, fertilisation, fruit and seed formation. Useful for exam study.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants MCQ Class 12 – Online Test
Question 1: What is the primary function of flowers in angiosperms?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Water absorption
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Protection
C. Sexual reproduction. Flowers are the primary reproductive organs in angiosperms, responsible for facilitating sexual reproduction.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a part of a typical flower?
A. Stem
B. Petal
C. Stamen
D. Pistil
A. Stem. While flowers are borne on stems, the stem itself is not considered a direct part of the flower.
Question 3: What is the term for the arrangement of flowers on a plant?
A. Inflorescence
B. Phyllotaxy
C. Venation
D. Raceme
A. Inflorescence. An inflorescence refers to the arrangement of flowers on the floral axis of a plant.
Question 4: Which part of the flower develops into the fruit after fertilisation?
A. Ovule
B. Ovary
C. Petal
D. Sepal
B. Ovary. The ovary, typically located at the base of the pistil, develops into the fruit after fertilisation.
Question 5: What is the main function of the colorful petals in a flower?
A. Protection
B. Photosynthesis
C. Pollinator attraction
D. Water absorption
C. Pollinator attraction. The vibrant colors of petals serve to attract pollinators like insects and birds, aiding in the process of sexual reproduction.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT directly involved in sexual reproduction?
A. Sepal
B. Petal
C. Stamen
D. Pistil
A. Sepal. Sepals are the outermost, leaf-like parts of a flower that primarily protect the developing bud and are not directly involved in sexual reproduction.
Question 7: What is the term for a flower that has both male (stamen) and female (pistil) reproductive organs?
A. Imperfect
B. Complete
C. Perfect
D. Incomplete
C. Perfect. A flower containing both stamen and pistil is referred to as a perfect flower.
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of flowers pollinated by wind?
A. Colorful petals
B. Exposed stamens
C. Large amounts of pollen
D. Feathery stigma
A. Colorful petals. Wind-pollinated flowers typically lack showy petals as they don’t rely on attracting pollinators.
Question 9: What is the process of pollen transfer from the anther to the stigma called?
A. fertilisation
B. Pollination
C. Germination
D. Dispersal
B. Pollination. Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) of a flower.
Question 10: Which of the following is a biotic pollinating agent?
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Insect
D. Gravity
C. Insect. Insects are biotic (living) agents that play a crucial role in pollinating many flowering plants.
Question 11: What is the term for the structure that develops into the seed after fertilisation?
A. Ovule
B. Ovary
C. Anther
D. Stigma
A. Ovule. The ovule, present within the ovary, contains the female reproductive cell and develops into the seed after fertilisation.
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of insect-pollinated flowers?
A. Colorful petals
B. Fragrance
C. Large amounts of pollen
D. Small, inconspicuous flowers
D. Small, inconspicuous flowers. Insect-pollinated flowers tend to be larger and more conspicuous to attract insects.
Question 13: What is the term for the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant?
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy
B. Geitonogamy. Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a strategy to prevent self-pollination?
A. Self-incompatibility
B. Unisexuality
C. Autogamy
D. Dichogamy
C. Autogamy. Autogamy is self-pollination, which is the opposite of strategies to prevent self-pollination.
Question 15: What is the term for the process in which the pollen tube enters the ovule through the micropyle?
A. Syngamy
B. Triple fusion
C. Double fertilisation
D. Pollen-pistil interaction
D. Pollen-pistil interaction. The process of pollen tube entry into the ovule through the micropyle is part of the broader pollen-pistil interaction.
Question 16: What is the term for the condition in which a plant has both male and female flowers on the same individual?
A. Dioecious
B. Monoecious
C. Hermaphrodite
D. Unisexual
B. Monoecious. A monoecious plant has separate male and female flowers on the same individual.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT an adaptation to promote cross-pollination?
A. Self-incompatibility
B. Dichogamy
C. Herkogamy
D. Cleistogamy
D. Cleistogamy. Cleistogamy refers to the production of flowers that do not open, promoting self-pollination rather than cross-pollination.
Question 18: What is the term for the study of pollen grains and other spores, especially as found in archaeological or geological deposits?
A. Palynology
B. Embryology
C. Paleontology
D. Taxonomy
A. Palynology. Palynology is the study of pollen grains and other spores, particularly those found in fossil records.
Question 19: In which part of the flower does the development of the male gametophyte take place?
A. Ovary
B. Anther
C. Stigma
D. Style
B. Anther. The male gametophyte, or pollen grain, develops within the anther of the flower.
Question 20: Which of the following constitutes the male reproductive part of a flower?
A. Pistil
B. Stamen
C. Sepal
D. Petal
B. Stamen. The stamen is the male reproductive organ of a flower, responsible for producing pollen.
Question 21: What are the two main parts of a stamen?
A. Stigma and style
B. Anther and filament
C. Ovary and ovule
D. Petal and sepal
B. Anther and filament. The stamen consists of the anther, which produces pollen, and the filament, which supports the anther.
Question 22: Where are pollen grains produced within the stamen?
A. Filament
B. Anther
C. Style
D. Stigma
B. Anther. The anther contains the microsporangia, where pollen grains are produced.
Question 23: How many lobes are typically found in an anther?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. Two. An anther typically has two lobes, each containing two microsporangia.
Question 24: What is the term for the process of microspore formation?
A. Megasporogenesis
B. Microsporogenesis
C. Pollination
D. fertilisation
B. Microsporogenesis. Microsporogenesis is the process by which microspores, which develop into pollen grains, are formed.
Question 25: What is the outermost layer of a pollen grain wall called?
A. Intine
B. Exine
C. Nucellus
D. Tapetum
B. Exine. The exine is the tough, outer layer of the pollen grain wall, often ornamented and resistant to decay.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a function of the intine layer of a pollen grain?
A. Protection from desiccation
B. Pollen tube formation
C. Recognition of stigma
D. Storage of nutrients
A. Protection from desiccation. The exine, not the intine, provides protection from desiccation. The intine is involved in pollen tube formation and other functions.
Question 27: What are the small pores in the exine of a pollen grain called?
A. Stomata
B. Hydathodes
C. Germ pores
D. Micropyles
C. Germ pores. Germ pores are apertures in the exine that allow for the emergence of the pollen tube during germination.
Question 28: What is the term for the period during which a pollen grain remains viable and capable of germination?
A. Dormancy
B. Viability
C. Longevity
D. Maturity
B. Viability. Pollen viability refers to the duration for which a pollen grain remains capable of germinating.
Question 29: Which of the following is a common allergen derived from pollen?
A. Gluten
B. Lactose
C. Histamine
D. Sporopollenin
D. Sporopollenin. Sporopollenin is a major component of the exine and is a common allergen for many people.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT a common use of pollen grains?
A. Food supplements
B. Forensic studies
C. Allergy medication
D. Paleontological research
C. Allergy medication. While pollen is a source of allergens, it is not used in allergy medication. It is used in other applications like food supplements, forensic studies, and paleontological research.
Question 31: What is the function of the tapetum in pollen development?
A. Protection
B. Water absorption
C. Nourishment
D. Pollination
C. Nourishment. The tapetum is the innermost layer of the microsporangium and provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
Question 32: What is the ploidy level of a microspore mother cell?
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
B. Diploid. The microspore mother cell is a diploid cell that undergoes meiosis to produce haploid microspores.
Question 33: How many microspores are typically produced from a single microspore mother cell after meiosis?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
D. Four. Meiosis in the microspore mother cell results in the formation of four haploid microspores.
Question 34: What is the ploidy level of a mature pollen grain?
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
A. Haploid. A mature pollen grain is the male gametophyte and is haploid.
Question 35: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the exine?
A. Thin and delicate
B. Made of cellulose
C. Highly resistant to degradation
D. Permeable to water
C. Highly resistant to degradation. The exine is composed of sporopollenin, making it extremely resistant to degradation.
Question 36: Which of the following constitutes the female reproductive part of a flower?
A. Pistil
B. Stamen
C. Sepal
D. Petal
A. Pistil. The pistil is the female reproductive organ of a flower, responsible for producing ovules.
Question 37: What is a carpel?
A. A modified leaf that forms part of the pistil
B. A male reproductive part of a flower
C. A type of inflorescence
D. A protective structure around the ovule
A. A modified leaf that forms part of the pistil. A carpel is the basic unit of the pistil and is a modified leaf that encloses the ovules.
Question 38: What type of gynoecium is formed when multiple carpels are fused together?
A. Apocarpous
B. Syncarpous
C. Monocarpellary
D. Multicarpellary
B. Syncarpous. A syncarpous gynoecium has multiple carpels fused together.
Question 39: What are the three main parts of a pistil?
A. Anther, filament, and connective
B. Stigma, style, and ovary
C. Sepal, petal, and stamen
D. Epicotyl, hypocotyl, and radicle
B. Stigma, style, and ovary. The pistil comprises the stigma, which receives pollen, the style, which connects the stigma to the ovary, and the ovary, which contains the ovules.
Question 40: What is the function of the stigma in a flower?
A. Pollen production
B. Pollen reception
C. Ovule production
D. Seed dispersal
B. Pollen reception. The stigma is the receptive surface of the pistil where pollen grains land and germinate.
Question 41: Where are the ovules located within the pistil?
A. Stigma
B. Style
C. Ovary
D. Filament
C. Ovary. The ovary is the basal, swollen part of the pistil that contains the ovules.
Question 42: What is the stalk that attaches the ovule to the placenta called?
A. Funicle
B. Integument
C. Micropyle
D. Nucellus
A. Funicle. The funicle is a stalk-like structure that connects the ovule to the placenta within the ovary.
Question 43: What is the small opening at the tip of the ovule called?
A. Funicle
B. Integument
C. Micropyle
D. Nucellus
C. Micropyle. The micropyle is a small opening in the integuments of the ovule through which the pollen tube enters.
Question 44: What is the term for the process of megaspore formation?
A. Megasporogenesis
B. Microsporogenesis
C. Pollination
D. fertilisation
A. Megasporogenesis. Megasporogenesis is the process by which megaspores are formed within the ovule.
Question 45: How many megaspores are typically functional after megasporogenesis?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
A. One. Typically, only one of the four megaspores produced during megasporogenesis is functional and develops into the embryo sac.
Question 46: What is the most common type of embryo sac development in angiosperms?
A. Monosporic
B. Bisporic
C. Tetrasporic
D. Polysporic
A. Monosporic. Monosporic development, where the embryo sac develops from a single megaspore, is the most common type in angiosperms.
Question 47: How many cells are present in a mature embryo sac?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Seven
D. Eight
C. Seven. A mature embryo sac is typically seven-celled, consisting of the egg apparatus, the central cell, and the antipodals.
Question 48: What does the egg apparatus consist of?
A. Two synergids and one egg cell
B. Two polar nuclei and one egg cell
C. Three antipodal cells
D. One central cell and two synergids
A. Two synergids and one egg cell. The egg apparatus is located at the micropylar end of the embryo sac and consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
Question 49: What is the function of the polar nuclei in the embryo sac?
A. fertilisation by sperm to form the zygote
B. Fusion with a sperm cell to form the endosperm
C. Guidance of the pollen tube
D. Nourishment of the developing embryo
B. Fusion with a sperm cell to form the endosperm. The two polar nuclei in the central cell fuse with a sperm cell during double fertilisation to form the endosperm.
Question 50: What is the process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma called?
A. fertilisation
B. Pollination
C. Germination
D. Dispersal
B. Pollination. Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma.
Question 51: What is the term for the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower?
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy
A. Autogamy. Autogamy refers to self-pollination within the same flower.
Question 52: What is the term for the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant?
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy
B. Geitonogamy. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen between different flowers on the same plant.
Question 53: What is the term for the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of a flower on a different plant?
A. Autogamy
B. Geitonogamy
C. Xenogamy
D. Cleistogamy
C. Xenogamy. Xenogamy refers to cross-pollination between flowers on different plants.
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT an abiotic agent of pollination?
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Insects
D. Gravity
C. Insects. Insects are biotic pollinators, while wind, water, and gravity are abiotic agents.
Question 55: Which of the following is a characteristic of wind-pollinated flowers?
A. Large, colorful petals
B. Strong fragrance
C. Small, inconspicuous flowers
D. Abundant, light pollen grains
D. Abundant, light pollen grains. Wind-pollinated flowers produce large amounts of lightweight pollen for easy dispersal by wind.
Question 56: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of water-pollinated flowers?
A. Reduced or absent perianth
B. Abundant pollen grains
C. Mucilaginous covering on pollen
D. Large, colorful petals
D. Large, colorful petals. Water-pollinated flowers generally have inconspicuous petals as they do not need to attract pollinators.
Question 57: Which of the following is NOT an adaptation for entomophily (insect pollination)?
A. Colorful petals
B. Nectar production
C. Small, inconspicuous flowers
D. Fragrance
C. Small, inconspicuous flowers. Entomophilous flowers are typically large and showy to attract insects.
Question 58: What is the term for the mechanism that prevents self-pollination in some flowers?
A. Autogamy
B. Self-compatibility
C. Self-incompatibility
D. Cleistogamy
C. Self-incompatibility. Self-incompatibility is a mechanism that prevents pollen from the same flower or plant from fertilizing the ovule.
Question 59: What is the term for the condition in which the anthers and stigma mature at different times to prevent self-pollination?
A. Herkogamy
B. Dichogamy
C. Heterostyly
D. Cleistogamy
B. Dichogamy. Dichogamy is a temporal separation in the maturation of anthers and stigma to avoid self-pollination.
Question 60: What is the process by which the pollen tube grows towards the embryo sac?
A. Pollen germination
B. Pollen tube growth
C. Double fertilisation
D. Syngamy
B. Pollen tube growth. After landing on the stigma, the pollen grain germinates and the pollen tube grows through the style towards the ovule.
Question 61: What is the term for the interaction between the pollen and the stigma that determines compatibility?
A. Pollen-pistil interaction
B. Double fertilisation
C. Self-incompatibility
D. Pollen germination
A. Pollen-pistil interaction. Pollen-pistil interaction involves a series of events that ensure compatible pollen grains are recognized and allowed to germinate.
Question 62: What is the process of removing anthers from a flower bud before they mature to prevent self-pollination called?
A. Bagging
B. Emasculation
C. Artificial hybridization
D. Cross-pollination
B. Emasculation. Emasculation is the removal of anthers from bisexual flowers to prevent self-pollination.
Question 63: What is the process of covering emasculated flowers with a bag to prevent unwanted pollination called?
A. Bagging
B. Emasculation
C. Artificial hybridization
D. Cross-pollination
A. Bagging. Bagging is done to prevent pollination by unwanted pollen after emasculation.
Question 64: What is the purpose of artificial hybridization?
A. To produce genetically identical offspring
B. To prevent self-pollination
C. To promote cross-pollination between selected parents
D. To induce parthenocarpy
C. To promote cross-pollination between selected parents. Artificial hybridization is a controlled pollination technique used to create offspring with desired traits from specific parent plants.
Question 65: What is the unique phenomenon of fertilisation that occurs in angiosperms called?
A. Single fertilisation
B. Double fertilisation
C. Triple fusion
D. Pollination
B. Double fertilisation. Angiosperms are characterized by double fertilisation, involving two fusion events.
Question 66: What is the fusion of one sperm cell with the egg cell called?
A. Syngamy
B. Triple fusion
C. Double fertilisation
D. Parthenogenesis
A. Syngamy. Syngamy is the fusion of a sperm cell with the egg cell, resulting in the formation of a zygote.
Question 67: What is the fusion of the second sperm cell with the two polar nuclei called?
A. Syngamy
B. Triple fusion
C. Double fertilisation
D. Parthenogenesis
B. Triple fusion. Triple fusion involves the fusion of the second sperm cell with the two polar nuclei in the central cell of the embryo sac.
Question 68: What is the product of syngamy?
A. Zygote
B. Endosperm
C. Embryo
D. Seed
A. Zygote. Syngamy results in the formation of a diploid zygote, which develops into the embryo.
Question 69: What is the product of triple fusion?
A. Zygote
B. Endosperm
C. Embryo
D. Seed
B. Endosperm. Triple fusion leads to the formation of the triploid endosperm, which provides nourishment to the developing embryo.
Question 70: What is the nutritive tissue that develops within the seed after fertilisation called?
A. Zygote
B. Embryo
C. Endosperm
D. Pericarp
C. Endosperm. The endosperm is a nutritive tissue that provides food for the developing embryo.
Question 71: What is the most common type of endosperm development in angiosperms?
A. Nuclear endosperm
B. Cellular endosperm
C. Helobial endosperm
D. Free-nuclear endosperm
D. Free-nuclear endosperm. Free-nuclear endosperm development is the most common type, where the endosperm nucleus divides repeatedly without cell wall formation.
Question 72: In which type of endosperm development does cell wall formation occur after every nuclear division?
A. Nuclear endosperm
B. Cellular endosperm
C. Helobial endosperm
D. Free-nuclear endosperm
B. Cellular endosperm. In cellular endosperm development, cell wall formation accompanies each nuclear division.
Question 73: Which type of endosperm is intermediate between nuclear and cellular types?
A. Nuclear endosperm
B. Cellular endosperm
C. Helobial endosperm
D. Free-nuclear endosperm
C. Helobial endosperm. Helobial endosperm shows characteristics of both nuclear and cellular types.
Question 74: What is the ploidy level of the endosperm in angiosperms?
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Triploid
D. Tetraploid
C. Triploid. The endosperm is formed by the fusion of a sperm cell (haploid) with two polar nuclei (each haploid), resulting in a triploid nucleus.
Question 75: What is the primary function of the endosperm?
A. Protection of the embryo
B. Seed dispersal
C. Providing nutrition to the developing embryo
D. Water absorption
C. Providing nutrition to the developing embryo. The endosperm serves as a food reserve for the growing embryo.
Question 76: What is the process of embryo development called?
A. Embryogenesis
B. Gametogenesis
C. Sporogenesis
D. Parthenogenesis
A. Embryogenesis. Embryogenesis is the process by which the embryo develops from the zygote.
Question 77: What is the first cell division of the zygote?
A. Transverse
B. Longitudinal
C. Oblique
D. Random
A. Transverse. The first cell division of the zygote is typically transverse.
Question 78: What are the two main parts of a dicot embryo?
A. Coleoptile and coleorrhiza
B. Epicotyl and hypocotyl
C. Plumule and radicle
D. Scutellum and coleoptile
C. Plumule and radicle. A dicot embryo consists of the plumule (shoot apex) and the radicle (root apex).
Question 79: What is the single cotyledon in a monocot embryo called?
A. Scutellum
B. Coleoptile
C. Coleorrhiza
D. Plumule
A. Scutellum. The scutellum is the single cotyledon in a monocot embryo, which absorbs nutrients from the endosperm.
Question 80: What is the mature ovule that contains the embryo and stored food called?
A. Seed
B. Fruit
C. Endosperm
D. Pericarp
A. Seed. The seed is the mature ovule that contains the embryo and stored food.
Question 81: What is the protective outer covering of a seed called?
A. Seed coat
B. Endosperm
C. Pericarp
D. Cotyledon
A. Seed coat. The seed coat is the tough, outer layer that protects the seed from damage and desiccation.
Question 82: What are the embryonic leaves within the seed called?
A. Seed coat
B. Endosperm
C. Cotyledons
D. Radicle
C. Cotyledons. Cotyledons are the embryonic leaves that store food reserves in some seeds.
Question 83: What is the term for the axis of the embryo that connects the radicle and plumule?
A. Hypocotyl
B. Epicotyl
C. Embryo axis
D. Funicle
C. Embryo axis. The embryo axis is the central axis of the embryo that connects the radicle and plumule.
Question 84: What type of seed lacks endosperm at maturity?
A. Albuminous
B. Non-albuminous
C. Dicot
D. Monocot
B. Non-albuminous. Non-albuminous seeds have exhausted their endosperm during embryo development, with food reserves stored in the cotyledons.
Question 85: What type of seed retains endosperm at maturity?
A. Albuminous
B. Non-albuminous
C. Dicot
D. Monocot
A. Albuminous. Albuminous seeds retain a significant portion of the endosperm at maturity.
Question 86: What is the term for the period of suspended growth and metabolism in a seed?
A. Germination
B. Dormancy
C. Viability
D. Maturation
B. Dormancy. Seed dormancy is a state of temporary metabolic inactivity that prevents premature germination.
Question 87: What is the process by which a seed emerges from dormancy and begins to grow?
A. Germination
B. Dormancy
C. Viability
D. Maturation
A. Germination. Germination is the resumption of growth and development in a seed under favorable conditions.
Question 88: What is the mature ovary that develops after fertilisation called?
A. Seed
B. Fruit
C. Endosperm
D. Pericarp
B. Fruit. The fruit is the mature ovary that develops after fertilisation, often containing seeds.
Question 89: What is the fruit wall that develops from the ovary wall called?
A. Seed coat
B. Endosperm
C. Pericarp
D. Cotyledon
C. Pericarp. The pericarp is the fruit wall that develops from the ovary wall and can be differentiated into layers like exocarp, mesocarp, and endocarp.
Question 90: What type of fruit develops from the ovary and other floral parts?
A. True fruit
B. False fruit
C. Parthenocarpic fruit
D. Aggregate fruit
B. False fruit. A false fruit develops from the ovary along with other floral parts, such as the thalamus.
Question 91: What type of fruit develops without fertilisation?
A. True fruit
B. False fruit
C. Parthenocarpic fruit
D. Aggregate fruit
C. Parthenocarpic fruit. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilisation and are seedless.
Question 92: Which of the following is an example of a parthenocarpic fruit?
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Mango
D. Strawberry
B. Banana. Bananas are a common example of parthenocarpic fruits, developing without fertilisation.
Question 93: What is the primary function of fruits?
A. Seed dispersal
B. Photosynthesis
C. Water absorption
D. Pollination
A. Seed dispersal. Fruits play a crucial role in protecting and dispersing seeds to new locations.
Question 94: What is the process of seed formation without fertilisation called?
A. Apomixis
B. Parthenocarpy
C. Polyembryony
D. Sexual reproduction
A. Apomixis. Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction in which seeds are produced without fertilisation.
Question 95: What is the phenomenon of having more than one embryo in a seed called?
A. Apomixis
B. Parthenocarpy
C. Polyembryony
D. Sexual reproduction
C. Polyembryony. Polyembryony is the occurrence of multiple embryos within a single seed.
Question 96: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of apomixis in agriculture?
A. Maintaining hybrid vigor
B. Increased genetic diversity
C. Rapid multiplication of desired genotypes
D. Elimination of seed-borne diseases
B. Increased genetic diversity. Apomixis leads to genetically uniform offspring, thus reducing genetic diversity.
Question 97: Which of the following is a common example of polyembryony?
A. Mango
B. Citrus fruits
C. Banana
D. Apple
B. Citrus fruits. Citrus fruits often exhibit polyembryony, with multiple embryos developing within a single seed.
Question 98: What is the term for the type of apomixis where the embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell?
A. Diplospory
B. Apospory
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Adventitious embryony
C. Parthenogenesis. Parthenogenesis is a type of apomixis in which the embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell.
Question 99: What is the term for the type of apomixis where the embryo develops from a cell of the nucellus or integument?
A. Diplospory
B. Apospory
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Adventitious embryony
D. Adventitious embryony. In adventitious embryony, the embryo develops directly from a diploid cell of the nucellus or integument.
Question 100: Which of the following is NOT a potential application of apomixis in horticulture?
A. Production of true-breeding hybrids
B. Conservation of endangered plant species
C. Development of disease-resistant varieties
D. Enhancement of fruit size and quality
D. Enhancement of fruit size and quality. While apomixis has several applications, it may not directly enhance fruit size and quality.
