Human Reproduction MCQ Class 12. Class 12 Biology multiple choice questions on Human Reproduction. Useful for testing knowledge of reproductive systems, fertilisation, and development.
Human Reproduction MCQ Class 12 – Online Test
Question 1: What is the primary significance of reproduction in any species?
A. To ensure the continuity of the species
B. To promote genetic diversity within a population
C. To facilitate the evolution of new traits
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Reproduction ensures species survival, introduces genetic variation through mechanisms like sexual reproduction, and provides the raw material for evolutionary changes.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a type of reproduction?
A. Sexual reproduction
B. Asexual reproduction
C. Viviparous reproduction
D. Regenerative reproduction
D. Regenerative reproduction. While regeneration (regrowing body parts) is a biological process, it’s generally not considered a primary mode of reproduction like sexual or asexual methods. Viviparity refers to live birth, a characteristic of reproduction, not a type itself.
Question 3: Humans are viviparous. What does this mean?
A. They lay eggs that hatch outside the body.
B. They give birth to live young.
C. They reproduce asexually.
D. They undergo metamorphosis.
B. They give birth to live young. Viviparity means the embryo develops inside the mother’s body, receiving nourishment directly from her, leading to the birth of live offspring.
Question 4: What is the main advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
A. It’s faster and requires less energy.
B. It produces genetically identical offspring.
C. It increases genetic variation, improving adaptability.
D. It’s the only form of reproduction in complex organisms.
C. It increases genetic variation, improving adaptability. Combining genetic material from two parents creates offspring with unique gene combinations, enhancing the species’ ability to adapt to changing environments.
Question 5: Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction?
A. Budding in yeast
B. Human reproduction
C. Bird reproduction
D. Insect reproduction
A. Budding in yeast. Budding is a type of asexual reproduction where a new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud due to cell division at one particular site.
Question 6: Where is the male reproductive system located?
A. Thoracic cavity
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Pelvic cavity
D. Cranial cavity
C. Pelvic cavity. The main organs of the male reproductive system, including the testes (within the scrotum extending below), accessory glands, and parts of the duct system, are primarily located in the pelvic region.
Question 7: What are the primary components of the male reproductive system?
A. Testes only
B. Testes and accessory ducts
C. Testes, accessory ducts, glands, and external genitalia
D. External genitalia only
C. Testes, accessory ducts, glands, and external genitalia. This includes the testes (sperm/hormone production), ducts (sperm transport/storage), glands (semen fluid production), and external genitalia (penis and scrotum for delivery and temperature regulation).
Question 8: What is the main function of the testes?
A. Produce urine
B. Produce sperms and hormones
C. Transport sperms
D. Secrete seminal fluids
B. Produce sperms and hormones. The testes have two primary functions: spermatogenesis (sperm production) in the seminiferous tubules and production of androgens (like testosterone) by Leydig cells.
Question 9: Why are the testes located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum?
A. For protection
B. For better blood circulation
C. To maintain a lower temperature for sperm production
D. To facilitate sperm transport
C. To maintain a lower temperature for sperm production. Spermatogenesis requires a temperature about 2-2.5°C lower than the core body temperature, which the scrotum helps maintain.
Question 10: What is the optimal temperature for spermatogenesis?
A. Same as the normal body temperature
B. 2-2.5°C higher than the normal body temperature
C. 2-2.5°C lower than the normal body temperature
D. It doesn’t require a specific temperature
C. 2-2.5°C lower than the normal body temperature. This slightly cooler environment is essential for the proper development and viability of sperm.
Question 11: What are the compartments within each testis called?
A. Testicular lobules
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Epididymis
D. Vasa efferentia
A. Testicular lobules. Each testis is divided by connective tissue septa into approximately 250 testicular lobules.
Question 12: Where are sperms produced within the testes?
A. Testicular lobules
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Epididymis
D. Vasa efferentia
B. Seminiferous tubules. These highly coiled tubules are located within the testicular lobules and are the specific site of spermatogenesis.
Question 13: What is spermatogenesis?
A. The process of sperm maturation
B. The process of sperm transport
C. The process of sperm production
D. The process of hormone secretion
C. The process of sperm production. It’s the complex process involving meiosis and differentiation where spermatogonia develop into mature spermatozoa.
Question 14: Which cells provide nutrition to the developing germ cells in the seminiferous tubules?
A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. Spermatogonia
D. Interstitial cells
B. Sertoli cells. Also known as nurse cells, Sertoli cells support, nourish, and regulate the development of sperm cells within the seminiferous tubules.
Question 15: Which cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of androgens?
A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. Spermatogonia
D. Germ cells
A. Leydig cells. Located in the interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules, Leydig cells produce and secrete androgens, primarily testosterone, under the influence of LH.
Question 16: What are androgens?
A. A type of sperm
B. A type of accessory duct
C. A type of male hormone
D. A type of enzyme
C. A type of male hormone. Androgens are the group of male sex hormones, with testosterone being the most important, responsible for male characteristics and reproductive functions.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT a male sex accessory duct?
A. Rete testis
B. Vasa efferentia
C. Epididymis
D. Bulbourethral gland
D. Bulbourethral gland. The bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands) are accessory glands that produce pre-ejaculate fluid, not ducts for sperm transport.
Question 18: What is the role of the male sex accessory ducts?
A. Produce sperms
B. Store and transport sperms
C. Secrete seminal fluids
D. Protect the testes
B. Store and transport sperms. The accessory ducts (rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra) form the pathway for sperm to travel from the testes out of the body and also serve as sites for sperm maturation and storage (especially the epididymis).
Question 19: Which duct connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct?
A. Rete testis
B. Vasa efferentia
C. Vas deferens
D. Urethra
C. Vas deferens. The vas deferens (or ductus deferens) transports mature sperm from the epididymis towards the urethra, joining with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct.
Question 20: What is the function of the urethra in males?
A. Transport sperms only
B. Transport urine only
C. Transport both urine and semen
D. Protect the internal organs
C. Transport both urine and semen. The urethra serves as the terminal duct for both the urinary system (transporting urine from the bladder) and the reproductive system (transporting semen during ejaculation).
Question 21: What is the main function of the penis?
A. Produce sperms
B. Store urine
C. Facilitate insemination
D. Secrete hormones
C. Facilitate insemination. The penis is the external male copulatory organ, adapted for delivering sperm into the female reproductive tract during intercourse.
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a male accessory gland?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Prostate gland
C. Bulbourethral gland
D. Vas deferens
D. Vas deferens. The vas deferens is an accessory duct responsible for sperm transport, not a gland producing seminal fluid.
Question 23: What is the function of the male accessory glands?
A. Produce sperms
B. Secrete seminal plasma
C. Store sperms
D. Protect the testes
B. Secrete seminal plasma. The seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral glands produce seminal plasma, the fluid component of semen that nourishes, protects, and aids the transport of sperm.
Question 24: What is the main component of seminal plasma?
A. Water
B. Fructose, calcium, and enzymes
C. Blood
D. Mucus
B. Fructose, calcium, and enzymes. Seminal plasma is rich in fructose (energy source for sperm), calcium, various enzymes (like PSA, clotting factors, fibrinolysin), and buffers.
Question 25: What is the function of the bulbourethral glands?
A. Lubricate the penis
B. Produce sperms
C. Store urine
D. Secrete hormones
A. Lubricate the penis. Secretions from the bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands are released prior to ejaculation to lubricate the distal urethra and neutralize any acidic urine residue.
Question 26: What is the role of fructose in seminal plasma?
A. Provide energy for sperm motility
B. Lubricate the urethra
C. Protect sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina
D. Neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina
A. Provide energy for sperm motility. Fructose, primarily secreted by the seminal vesicles, serves as the main metabolic fuel for spermatozoa, powering their flagellar movement.
Question 27: Which gland contributes the largest proportion of seminal plasma?
A. Seminal vesicles
B. Prostate gland
C. Bulbourethral glands
D. Testes
A. Seminal vesicles. The seminal vesicles contribute the largest volume (about 60-70%) to the seminal fluid, providing fructose and prostaglandins.
Question 28: What is the function of the prostate gland?
A. Produce sperm
B. Secrete a milky fluid that enhances sperm motility
C. Lubricate the urethra
D. Store sperm
B. Secrete a milky fluid that enhances sperm motility. The prostatic fluid is slightly acidic and contains citrate (nutrient), enzymes (like PSA for liquefaction), and seminalplasmin (antibiotic), contributing to sperm activation and viability.
Question 29: What is the approximate pH of seminal plasma?
A. Acidic
B. Neutral
C. Alkaline
D. Highly alkaline
C. Alkaline. Semen is typically alkaline, with a pH ranging from 7.2 to 8.0.
Question 30: Why is the alkaline nature of seminal plasma important?
A. To protect sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina
B. To provide energy for sperm motility
C. To enhance sperm production
D. To lubricate the urethra
A. To protect sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina. The alkalinity helps neutralize the natural acidity of the male urethra and the female vagina, creating a more favorable environment for sperm survival and motility.
Question 31: What is the function of the enzymes present in seminal plasma?
A. To provide energy for sperm motility
B. To coagulate semen after ejaculation
C. To liquefy semen after coagulation
D. Both B and C
D. Both B and C. Seminal plasma contains clotting factors (from seminal vesicles) that cause initial coagulation, and enzymes like prostate-specific antigen (PSA) (from the prostate) that later liquefy the coagulum, releasing the sperm.
Question 32: What is the function of the cremaster muscle in the scrotum?
A. To produce sperm
B. To regulate the temperature of the testes
C. To transport sperm
D. To secrete hormones
B. To regulate the temperature of the testes. The cremaster muscle raises or lowers the testes in response to temperature changes and sexual stimulation to maintain optimal temperature for spermatogenesis.
Question 33: What happens to the scrotum when the ambient temperature is cold?
A. It relaxes, moving the testes away from the body.
B. It contracts, bringing the testes closer to the body.
C. It remains unchange
D. D. It secretes sweat to cool the testes.
B. It contracts, bringing the testes closer to the body. Contraction of the cremaster and dartos muscles pulls the testes closer to the pelvic cavity to conserve heat.
Question 34: What is the function of the dartos muscle in the scrotum?
A. To produce sperm
B. To regulate the temperature of the testes
C. To transport sperm
D. To secrete hormones
B. To regulate the temperature of the testes. The dartos muscle is smooth muscle within the scrotal wall that wrinkles the scrotal skin, reducing surface area and heat loss in cold conditions.
Question 35: What is the function of the tunica albuginea in the testes?
A. To produce sperm
B. To provide structural support to the testes
C. To transport sperm
D. To secrete hormones
B. To provide structural support to the testes. The tunica albuginea is a tough, fibrous outer capsule that covers the testis and extends inward to form septa, dividing the testis into lobules.
Question 36: What is the function of the rete testis?
A. To produce sperm
B. To transport sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent ductules
C. To store sperm
D. To secrete hormones
B. To transport sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the efferent ductules. The rete testis is a network of tubules within the mediastinum testis that receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules and passes them on to the vasa efferentia.
Question 37: Where is the female reproductive system located?
A. Thoracic cavity
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Pelvic cavity
D. Cranial cavity
C. Pelvic cavity. The ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina are primarily situated within the pelvic cavity.
Question 38: What are the primary components of the female reproductive system?
A. Ovaries only
B. Ovaries and oviducts
C. Ovaries, oviducts, uterus, cervix, vagina, and external genitalia
D. External genitalia only
C. Ovaries, oviducts, uterus, cervix, vagina, and external genitalia. This encompasses the organs responsible for egg production (ovaries), transport (oviducts), gestation (uterus), intercourse (vagina, cervix), and external structures (vulva).
Question 39: What is the main function of the ovaries?
A. Produce eggs and hormones
B. Transport eggs
C. Support the developing fetus
D. Secrete milk
A. Produce eggs and hormones. The ovaries are responsible for oogenesis (producing ova or eggs) and secreting the primary female sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
Question 40: What are the two main types of ovarian hormones?
A. Estrogen and progesterone
B. Testosterone and progesterone
C. Estrogen and testosterone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
A. Estrogen and progesterone. These steroid hormones produced by the ovaries regulate the menstrual cycle, support pregnancy, and influence secondary sexual characteristics. FSH and LH are pituitary hormones that regulate the ovaries.
Question 41: What is the main function of estrogen?
A. To stimulate the development of female secondary sexual characteristics
B. To prepare the uterus for pregnancy
C. To regulate the menstrual cycle
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Estrogen promotes the growth of reproductive organs, development of secondary sexual characteristics (like breast development, fat distribution), stimulates endometrial proliferation, and plays a role in regulating the menstrual cycle.
Question 42: What is the main function of progesterone?
A. To stimulate the development of female secondary sexual characteristics
B. To prepare the uterus for pregnancy and maintain it during pregnancy
C. To regulate the menstrual cycle
D. All of the above
B. To prepare the uterus for pregnancy and maintain it during pregnancy. Progesterone, primarily secreted by the corpus luteum and later the placenta, makes the endometrium secretory (ready for implantation), maintains the uterine lining during pregnancy, and inhibits uterine contractions.
Question 43: What are the oviducts also known as?
A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Cervix
D. Vagina
B. Fallopian tubes. Oviducts and Fallopian tubes are synonymous terms for the tubes connecting the ovaries to the uterus.
Question 44: What is the function of the oviducts?
A. To produce eggs
B. To transport eggs from the ovaries to the uterus
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete milk
B. To transport eggs from the ovaries to the uterus. The fallopian tubes capture the ovulated egg using fimbriae and transport it via peristalsis and ciliary action towards the uterus; they are also the usual site of fertilization.
Question 45: Where does fertilization usually occur?
A. Ovary
B. Oviduct (Fallopian tube)
C. Uterus
D. Cervix
B. Oviduct (Fallopian tube). Fertilization, the fusion of sperm and egg, most commonly takes place in the ampulla, the widest section of the fallopian tube.
Question 46: What is the main function of the uterus?
A. To produce eggs
B. To transport eggs
C. To support the developing fetus during pregnancy
D. To secrete milk
C. To support the developing fetus during pregnancy. The uterus (womb) is where the fertilized egg implants and develops throughout gestation, providing nourishment and protection.
Question 47: What are the three layers of the uterine wall?
A. Perimetrium, myometrium, and endometrium
B. Endometrium, ectometrium, and mesometrium
C. Myometrium, perimetrium, and serosa
D. Serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
A. Perimetrium, myometrium, and endometrium. From outside to inside: the perimetrium (outer serous layer), the myometrium (thick middle layer of smooth muscle), and the endometrium (inner mucosal lining that changes with the menstrual cycle).
Question 48: Which layer of the uterine wall undergoes changes during the menstrual cycle?
A. Perimetrium
B. Myometrium
C. Endometrium
D. All of the above
C. Endometrium. The endometrium proliferates (grows thicker) under estrogen influence and becomes secretory under progesterone influence, preparing for implantation. If implantation doesn’t occur, most of the endometrium is shed during menstruation.
Question 49: What is the function of the cervix?
A. To produce eggs
B. To connect the uterus to the vagina
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete milk
B. To connect the uterus to the vagina. The cervix is the lower, narrow, muscular part of the uterus that opens into the vagina, controlling passage between the two.
Question 50: What is the function of the vagina?
A. To produce eggs
B. To receive sperm during intercourse and serve as the birth canal
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete milk
B. To receive sperm during intercourse and serve as the birth canal. The vagina is the muscular tube extending from the cervix to the outside, serving as the receptacle for the penis during coitus and the passageway for childbirth and menstrual flow.
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT part of the female external genitalia?
A. Mons pubis
B. Labia majora
C. Labia minora
D. Cervix
D. Cervix. The cervix is an internal structure, part of the uterus. The female external genitalia (collectively called the vulva or pudendum) includes the mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen, and clitoris.
Question 52: What is the function of the hymen?
A. To produce eggs
B. To cover the vaginal opening
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete milk
B. To cover the vaginal opening. The hymen is a thin membrane that partially covers the external vaginal orifice; its presence or absence is variable and not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Question 53: What is the function of the clitoris?
A. To produce eggs
B. To provide sexual pleasure
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete milk
B. To provide sexual pleasure. The clitoris is a small, highly sensitive erectile tissue located at the anterior junction of the labia minora, homologous to the male penis, and is a primary site of female sexual sensation.
Question 54: What is the main function of the mammary glands?
A. To produce eggs
B. To produce milk for the newborn
C. To support the developing fetus
D. To secrete hormones
B. To produce milk for the newborn. Mammary glands are specialized accessory reproductive glands present in both sexes but functional primarily in females post-partum for lactation (milk production and secretion).
Question 55: What is lactation?
A. The process of milk production
B. The process of egg production
C. The process of fertilization
D. The process of childbirth
A. The process of milk production. Lactation encompasses the synthesis, secretion, and ejection of milk from the mammary glands, stimulated primarily by the hormone prolactin and triggered by infant suckling.
Question 56: What is gametogenesis?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The process of embryo development
C. The process of gamete (sperm and ovum) formation
D. The process of childbirth
C. The process of gamete (sperm and ovum) formation. Gametogenesis refers to the biological process by which diploid precursor cells undergo meiosis and differentiation to form mature haploid gametes (sperm in males, ova in females).
Question 57: What is the process of sperm formation called?
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Oogenesis
C. Gametogenesis
D. Fertilization
A. Spermatogenesis. This is the specific term for the production of sperm within the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
Question 58: Where does spermatogenesis occur?
A. Ovaries
B. Testes
C. Epididymis
D. Prostate gland
B. Testes. Specifically, sperm production occurs within the seminiferous tubules located inside the testes.
Question 59: What is the process of ovum formation called?
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Oogenesis
C. Gametogenesis
D. Fertilization
B. Oogenesis. This is the specific term for the production and development of an ovum (egg cell) within the ovary.
Question 60: Where does oogenesis occur?
A. Ovaries
B. Testes
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Uterus
A. Ovaries. The development of egg cells takes place within follicles inside the ovaries.
Question 61: What is the main difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A. Spermatogenesis produces four functional gametes, while oogenesis produces only one.
B. Spermatogenesis occurs throughout a male’s life, while oogenesis ceases in females around the age of fifty.
C. Spermatogenesis produces motile gametes, while oogenesis produces non-motile gametes.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Spermatogenesis results in four equal-sized, motile sperm; it’s continuous from puberty onwards. Oogenesis yields one large, non-motile ovum and smaller polar bodies; it’s cyclical and has a finite duration ending at menopause.
Question 62: What is the product of oogenesis?
A. Sperm
B. Ovum (egg)
C. Zygote
D. Embryo
B. Ovum (egg). Oogenesis results in the formation of a mature haploid female gamete, the ovum, ready for fertilization.
Question 63: What is menarche?
A. The beginning of menstruation
B. The end of menstruation
C. The process of ovulation
D. The process of fertilization
A. The beginning of menstruation. Menarche marks the first occurrence of menstruation in a female, typically during puberty.
Question 64: What is menopause?
A. The beginning of menstruation
B. The end of menstruation
C. The process of ovulation
D. The process of fertilization
B. The end of menstruation. Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual cycles in females, usually occurring between the ages of 45 and 55, marking the end of reproductive capability.
Question 65: What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?
A. Menstrual, follicular, ovulatory, and luteal
B. Proliferative, secretory, ischemic, and menstrual
C. Follicular, luteal, ovulation, and implantation
D. Menstruation, fertilization, implantation, and pregnancy
A. Menstrual, follicular, ovulatory, and luteal. These phases describe the cyclical events: Menstrual phase (bleeding), Follicular phase (follicle growth), Ovulatory phase (egg release), and Luteal phase (corpus luteum activity). Note: Option B describes the uterine cycle phases (Proliferative, Secretory) plus ischemic phase leading to menstruation. Option A is more commonly used for the overall ovarian/hormonal cycle.
Question 66: Which hormone is responsible for the development of follicles in the ovary?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). FSH, released from the anterior pituitary, stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
Question 67: Which hormone triggers ovulation?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH). A surge in LH levels, typically around day 14 of the cycle, triggers the final maturation of the dominant follicle and induces ovulation (release of the egg).
Question 68: What is ovulation?
A. The release of an egg from the ovary
B. The beginning of menstruation
C. The end of menstruation
D. The process of fertilization
A. The release of an egg from the ovary. Ovulation is the event where a mature ovarian follicle ruptures and releases the secondary oocyte (egg) into the fallopian tube.
Question 69: What is the corpus luteum?
A. A mature follicle in the ovary
B. The structure formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation
C. The fertilized egg
D. The lining of the uterus
B. The structure formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation. After releasing the egg, the remaining follicular cells transform into the corpus luteum, a temporary endocrine gland.
Question 70: What is the function of the corpus luteum?
A. To produce estrogen
B. To produce progesterone
C. To support the developing embryo if fertilization occurs
D. Both B and C
D. Both B and C. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone and some estrogen. Progesterone prepares the uterus for potential pregnancy and maintains it if implantation occurs. If no pregnancy, it degenerates.
Question 71: What is insemination?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The process of implantation
C. The deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract
D. The release of an egg from the ovary
C. The deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract. Insemination typically occurs during sexual intercourse when semen is ejaculated into the vagina.
Question 72: Where does fertilization usually occur?
A. Ovary
B. Oviduct (Fallopian tube)
C. Uterus
D. Cervix
B. Oviduct (Fallopian tube). Fertilization, the fusion of sperm and egg, normally occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
Question 73: What is formed when a sperm fertilizes an egg?
A. Embryo
B. Fetus
C. Zygote
D. Blastocyst
C. Zygote. The fusion of the haploid sperm nucleus and the haploid egg nucleus results in the formation of a single diploid cell called the zygote, the first cell of the new individual.
Question 74: How is the sex of a baby determined in humans?
A. By the mother’s chromosomes
B. By the father’s chromosomes
C. By environmental factors
D. By the timing of fertilization
B. By the father’s chromosomes. The mother always contributes an X chromosome (from the egg). The father contributes either an X or a Y chromosome (from the sperm). An XX combination results in a female, while an XY combination results in a male.
Question 75: What is cleavage?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The process of implantation
C. The rapid cell division of the zygote
D. The development of the embryo
C. The rapid cell division of the zygote. Cleavage refers to the series of rapid mitotic cell divisions that the zygote undergoes as it travels down the fallopian tube, increasing cell number without significant overall growth.
Question 76: What is a blastocyst?
A. The fertilized egg
B. A hollow ball of cells formed from the zygote
C. The developing embryo
D. The lining of the uterus
B. A hollow ball of cells formed from the zygote. After several rounds of cleavage, the developing structure becomes a blastocyst, characterized by an inner cell mass (which forms the embryo) and an outer layer called the trophoblast (which contributes to the placenta), surrounding a fluid-filled cavity (blastocoel).
Question 77: What is implantation?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall
C. The development of the embryo
D. The process of childbirth
B. The attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall. Implantation is the process where the blastocyst embeds itself into the endometrium (the lining of the uterus), establishing pregnancy.
Question 78: What is the placenta?
A. The developing embryo
B. The lining of the uterus
C. The organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall
D. The umbilical cord
C. The organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall. The placenta is a temporary organ formed from both fetal (trophoblast) and maternal (endometrial) tissues, facilitating exchange between mother and fetus.
Question 79: What is the function of the placenta?
A. To provide nutrients and oxygen to the fetus
B. To remove waste products from the fetus
C. To produce hormones
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The placenta facilitates the transfer of nutrients, gases (O2, CO2), and antibodies; removes metabolic wastes; and acts as an endocrine organ, producing hormones like hCG, progesterone, estrogen, and hPL essential for maintaining pregnancy.
Question 80: What is the umbilical cord?
A. The developing embryo
B. The lining of the uterus
C. The organ that connects the developing fetus to the placenta
D. The amniotic sac
C. The organ that connects the developing fetus to the placenta. The umbilical cord is the lifeline containing umbilical arteries (carrying deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta) and an umbilical vein (carrying oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus).
Question 81: What is the function of the umbilical cord?
A. To provide nutrients and oxygen to the fetus
B. To remove waste products from the fetus
C. To transport blood between the fetus and the placenta
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Through the blood vessels within it, the umbilical cord facilitates the transport of nutrients, oxygen, and antibodies to the fetus, and the removal of waste products and carbon dioxide from the fetus, all via the placenta.
Question 82: Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D. Oxytocin
B. Progesterone. While hCG maintains the corpus luteum initially and estrogen contributes, progesterone is crucial throughout pregnancy for maintaining the uterine lining, preventing contractions, and supporting fetal development.
Question 83: What is the approximate duration of embryonic development in humans?
A. 2 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 24 weeks
B. 8 weeks. The embryonic period spans from fertilization through the end of the 8th week of gestation. During this time, organogenesis (the formation of major organs and body systems) occurs.
Question 84: When does the heart begin to beat in a developing embryo?
A. 1 week
B. 3 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
B. 3 weeks. The primitive heart tube starts to form and beat rhythmically during the 3rd week of embryonic development (corresponding to about the 5th week since the last menstrual period).
Question 85: When are all the major organ systems formed in a developing embryo?
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 24 weeks
B. 8 weeks. By the end of the embryonic period (8 weeks), the rudimentary forms of all major organs and body systems have been established. Subsequent development involves growth and maturation.
Question 86: What is the period from the 9th week of pregnancy until birth called?
A. Embryonic development
B. Fetal development
C. Gestation
D. Parturition
B. Fetal development. Following the embryonic period, the developing human is referred to as a fetus. The fetal period (from week 9 until birth) is characterized primarily by growth and maturation of the already formed organs.
Question 87: When does the fetus begin to move in the womb?
A. 8 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 16 weeks
D. 20 weeks
C. 16 weeks. While some muscle contractions occur earlier, coordinated movements that might be perceptible (quickening) typically begin around the 16th to 20th week of gestation.
Question 88: When are most of the major organs fully functional in a developing fetus?
A. 24 weeks
B. 30 weeks
C. 36 weeks
D. 40 weeks
A. 24 weeks. Around 24 weeks, fetal viability (the potential to survive outside the womb) is often considered possible because major organs like the lungs have developed sufficiently, though they still require significant maturation. Functionality increases throughout the fetal period.
Question 89: What is the approximate duration of pregnancy in humans?
A. 9 months (40 weeks)
B. 7 months
C. 10 months
D. 12 months
A. 9 months (40 weeks). Human gestation typically lasts about 40 weeks when calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), or about 38 weeks from fertilization.
Question 90: What is parturition?
A. The process of fertilization
B. The process of implantation
C. The process of childbirth
D. The process of lactation
C. The process of childbirth. Parturition refers to the entire process of labor and delivery, involving uterine contractions, cervical dilation, and the expulsion of the fetus and placenta.
Question 91: Which part of the brain is involved in the neuroendocrine mechanism of parturition?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Cerebrum
B. Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus produces oxytocin, which is stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin plays a critical role in stimulating uterine contractions during labor.
Question 92: Which hormone plays a crucial role in the initiation of parturition?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin. While changes in estrogen/progesterone ratios contribute, oxytocin is the primary hormone responsible for inducing and strengthening the powerful uterine contractions required for labor.
Question 93: What is the function of oxytocin during childbirth?
A. To stimulate uterine contractions
B. To dilate the cervix
C. To prepare the mammary glands for lactation
D. All of the above
A. To stimulate uterine contractions. Oxytocin’s main role during labor is to cause strong, rhythmic contractions of the myometrium (uterine muscle), which helps dilate the cervix and push the baby out.
Question 94: What happens to the placenta after childbirth?
A. It remains attached to the uterine wall.
B. It is expelled from the uterus.
C. It is absorbed by the body.
D. It is transformed into the corpus luteum.
B. It is expelled from the uterus. Following the delivery of the baby, further uterine contractions cause the placenta to detach from the uterine wall and be expelled, known as the afterbirth or placental stage of labor.
Question 95: What is lactation?
A. The process of childbirth
B. The process of milk production
C. The process of fertilization
D. The process of implantation
B. The process of milk production. Lactation refers to the synthesis and secretion of milk by the mammary glands to nourish the infant after birth.
Question 96: Which hormone is responsible for milk production?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin
C. Prolactin. Prolactin, secreted by the anterior pituitary, stimulates the mammary glands to synthesize and produce milk. Oxytocin is responsible for milk ejection (let-down).
Question 97: What is colostrum?
A. The first milk produced after childbirth
B. The mature milk produced after a few days
C. The hormone responsible for milk production
D. The structure that connects the fetus to the placenta
A. The first milk produced after childbirth. Colostrum is a yellowish, thick fluid secreted by the mammary glands during the first few days postpartum. It precedes the production of mature breast milk.
Question 98: Why is colostrum important for the newborn?
A. It is rich in antibodies that provide passive immunity.
B. It is easily digestible.
C. It has a laxative effect, helping the baby pass meconium.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Colostrum is highly nutritious, packed with maternal antibodies (especially IgA) for immune protection, easily digestible, and helps clear the newborn’s digestive tract of meconium.
Question 99: What are some of the benefits of breastfeeding for the baby?
A. Provides optimal nutrition
B. Reduces the risk of infections
C. Promotes bonding with the mother
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Breast milk offers ideal nutrition tailored to the infant’s needs, contains antibodies and immune factors reducing infection risk, and the act of breastfeeding fosters maternal-infant bonding.
Question 100: What are some of the benefits of breastfeeding for the mother?
A. Helps the uterus return to its normal size
B. Reduces the risk of postpartum bleeding
C. May help with weight loss
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Breastfeeding stimulates oxytocin release, which aids uterine involution (shrinking) and reduces bleeding. It also burns calories, potentially aiding weight loss, and is associated with long-term health benefits like reduced risk of certain cancers.