Human Health and Disease MCQ

Human Health and Disease MCQ. Test your understanding of Human Health and Disease with these MCQs. Topics include diseases, immunity, AIDS, cancer, and drug abuse. For Class 11-12.

Human Health and Disease MCQ – Mock Online Test

Question 1: Which of the following statements best defines ‘health’ according to the modern concept?

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Correct Answer: B. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being. Modern definitions of health go beyond just the absence of disease.

Question 2: What did early Greeks like Hippocrates believe about the cause of diseases?

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Correct Answer: B. Imbalance of certain ‘humors’ in the body. They believed that an imbalance of these ‘humors’ led to different diseases.

Question 3: Whose work disproved the ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health?

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Correct Answer: B. William Harvey. His discovery of blood circulation challenged the existing beliefs about the causes of disease.

Question 4: Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease?

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Correct Answer: C. Pneumonia. Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens like bacteria, viruses, etc.

Question 5: Non-infectious diseases are:

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Correct Answer: C. Not caused by pathogens. These diseases can arise from genetic factors, lifestyle choices, or environmental factors.

Question 6: Which of the following is a characteristic of an infectious disease?

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Correct Answer: B. It is caused by a pathogen. Pathogens like bacteria, viruses, or fungi can cause infectious diseases.

Question 7: Genetic disorders are:

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Correct Answer: C. Often inherited from parents. These disorders arise from abnormalities in an individual’s genetic makeup.

Question 8: Which of the following lifestyle factors can impact health?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Diet, exercise, and sleep are crucial components of a healthy lifestyle.

Question 9: Infections can be caused by:

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Bacteria, viruses, and fungi are common pathogens that can cause infections.

Question 10: Which bacterium causes typhoid fever?

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Correct Answer: B. Salmonella typhi. This bacterium enters the body through contaminated food and water.

Question 11: What test is used to confirm typhoid fever?

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Correct Answer: B. Widal test. This test is commonly used to confirm typhoid fever.

Question 12: Pneumonia primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?

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Correct Answer: C. Alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs. Pneumonia causes the alveoli to fill with fluid, making breathing difficult.

Question 13: The common cold is caused by which type of pathogen?

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Correct Answer: B. Virus. Rhinoviruses are a common cause of the common cold.

Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of the common cold?

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Correct Answer: D. Chest pain. Chest pain is not typically associated with the common cold.

Question 15: How is the common cold typically transmitted?

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Correct Answer: D. Through respiratory droplets from an infected person. These droplets can be inhaled directly or transmitted through contaminated objects.

Question 16: Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?

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Correct Answer: B. Malaria. Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium.

Question 17: What is the vector (transmitting agent) for malaria?

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Correct Answer: B. Female Anopheles mosquito. The Plasmodium parasite is transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.

Question 18: Amoebiasis is caused by which parasite?

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Correct Answer: B. Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan parasite infects the large intestine.

Question 19: Ascariasis is caused by which type of pathogen?

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Correct Answer: C. Helminth (roundworm). Ascaris is an intestinal parasite that causes ascariasis.

Question 20: Elephantiasis is caused by which type of pathogen?

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Correct Answer: C. Helminth (filarial worm). Wuchereria is the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis.

Question 21: Which of the following is a common symptom of elephantiasis?

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Correct Answer: B. Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels. This inflammation often occurs in the lower limbs.

Question 22: Ringworm is caused by which type of pathogen?

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Correct Answer: C. Fungus. Fungi like Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton can cause ringworm.

Question 23: Which of the following is a common symptom of ringworm?

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Correct Answer: A. Dry, scaly lesions on the skin. These lesions are often accompanied by intense itching.

Question 24: Ringworm infections are commonly acquired from:

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Correct Answer: C. Soil or by using contaminated objects. Ringworm can be spread through contact with soil or by sharing personal items like towels or combs.

Question 25: What is immunity?

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Correct Answer: A. The ability of the body to fight disease-causing organisms. This ability is conferred by the immune system.

Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a type of immunity?

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Correct Answer: C. Reactive immunity. The main types of immunity are innate and acquired.

Question 27: Which type of immunity is present at birth?

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Correct Answer: B. Innate immunity. Innate immunity provides a non-specific defense against pathogens.

Question 28: Which type of immunity is pathogen-specific?

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Correct Answer: B. Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity develops after exposure to a specific pathogen.

Question 29: Which type of immunity is characterized by memory?

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Correct Answer: B. Acquired immunity. The acquired immune system can “remember” previous encounters with pathogens.

Question 30: Which type of immunity provides a non-specific defense?

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Correct Answer: A. Innate immunity. Innate immunity provides a general defense against a wide range of pathogens.

Question 31: Which of the following is NOT a type of barrier in innate immunity?

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Correct Answer: D. Memory barriers. Memory is a characteristic of acquired immunity, not innate immunity.

Question 32: Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier in innate immunity?

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Correct Answer: A. Skin. The skin acts as a primary physical barrier to prevent the entry of pathogens.

Question 33: Which cells are involved in the cellular barriers of innate immunity?

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Correct Answer: A. Leukocytes (WBCs). Certain types of leukocytes, like neutrophils and macrophages, can engulf and destroy microbes.

Question 34: Which type of cells are responsible for the production of antibodies?

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Correct Answer: B. B-lymphocytes. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to pathogens.

Question 35: What is the other name for antibody-mediated immune response?

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Correct Answer: B. Humoral immune response. Antibodies are found in the blood, hence the name humoral.

Question 36: Which type of cells mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI)?

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Correct Answer: A. T-lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

Question 37: Which type of immunity is developed when the body is exposed to antigens?

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Correct Answer: A. Active immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its own antibodies.

Question 38: Which type of immunity is developed when ready-made antibodies are given to the body?

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Correct Answer: B. Passive immunity. Passive immunity provides immediate but temporary protection.

Question 39: Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

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Correct Answer: B. Mother’s milk providing antibodies to the infant. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid produced in the initial days of lactation, is rich in antibodies.

Question 40: What is the principle of vaccination based on?

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Correct Answer: C. The body’s ability to remember previous encounters with pathogens. Vaccination triggers the production of memory cells that can quickly recognize and respond to future infections.

Question 41: What is injected during vaccination?

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Correct Answer: C. Both A and B. Vaccines can contain antigenic proteins or weakened pathogens.

Question 42: What is passive immunization?

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Correct Answer: A. Injecting preformed antibodies or antitoxin. This provides immediate protection, such as in the case of tetanus or snakebites.

Question 43: What is an allergy?

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Correct Answer: A. An exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens. Allergies involve an overreaction of the immune system to harmless substances.

Question 44: What are allergens?

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Correct Answer: A. Substances that cause allergies. Allergens can include pollen, dust mites, and animal dander.

Question 45: Which type of antibody is associated with allergies?

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Correct Answer: C. IgE. IgE antibodies play a key role in allergic reactions.

Question 46: What is autoimmunity?

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Correct Answer: A. When the body attacks its own cells. Autoimmune diseases result from the immune system mistakenly targeting the body’s own tissues.

Question 47: Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease?

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Correct Answer: A. Rheumatoid arthritis. In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the lining of the joints.

Question 48: What is the basis of self and non-self recognition in the immune system?

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Correct Answer: D. It is not yet fully understood. The exact mechanisms of self and non-self recognition are still being researched.

Question 49: Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

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Correct Answer: A. Bone marrow. Bone marrow is where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.

Question 50: Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?

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Correct Answer: B. Spleen. The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ where lymphocytes interact with antigens.

Question 51: What does AIDS stand for?

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Correct Answer: A. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. AIDS is a condition that develops due to the deficiency of the immune system.

Question 52: What is the causative agent of AIDS?

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Correct Answer: C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). HIV is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system.

Question 53: What type of virus is HIV?

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Correct Answer: A. Retrovirus. Retroviruses have RNA as their genetic material.

Question 54: Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?

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Correct Answer: C. Mosquito bites. HIV is not transmitted through insect bites.

Question 55: Which of the following groups is NOT at high risk of HIV infection?

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Correct Answer: C. People who eat contaminated food. HIV is not transmitted through food.

Question 56: Can HIV be transmitted through casual contact like hugging or shaking hands?

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Correct Answer: B. No. HIV is not transmitted through casual contact.

Question 57: Which enzyme is crucial for HIV replication?

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Correct Answer: A. Reverse transcriptase. This enzyme helps convert the viral RNA into DNA.

Question 58: What type of cells does HIV primarily infect?

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Correct Answer: B. Helper T-lymphocytes (TH cells). These cells are vital for the immune response.

Question 59: Where does the integration of viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA take place?

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Correct Answer: B. Nucleus. The viral DNA integrates into the host cell’s DNA in the nucleus.

Question 60: What is the initial symptom of HIV infection?

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Correct Answer: A. Fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. These symptoms are often seen in the early stages of HIV infection.

Question 61: Why do opportunistic infections occur in AIDS patients?

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Correct Answer: A. Due to a weakened immune system. The decrease in helper T-lymphocytes makes the body vulnerable to infections.

Question 62: Is there a cure for AIDS?

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Correct Answer: B. No. Currently, there is no cure for AIDS, but treatments can help manage the disease.

Question 63: What is the commonly used diagnostic test for AIDS?

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Correct Answer: C. ELISA. ELISA stands for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.

Question 64: What does ELISA detect?

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Correct Answer: C. Antibodies against HIV. ELISA detects the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to HIV infection.

Question 65: Is ELISA always accurate in detecting HIV?

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Correct Answer: B. No. ELISA may give false positives or false negatives in some cases.

Question 66: What type of drugs are used to treat AIDS?

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Correct Answer: A. Anti-retroviral drugs. These drugs help to inhibit the replication of HIV.

Question 67: What is the best option for preventing AIDS?

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Correct Answer: C. Prevention. As there is no cure for AIDS, prevention is crucial.

Question 68: Which organization in India is primarily involved in AIDS control and prevention?

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Correct Answer: C. NACO. NACO stands for National AIDS Control Organization.

Question 69: What is cancer?

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Correct Answer: A. A disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth. Cancer cells lose the normal regulatory mechanisms that control cell growth and division.

Question 70: What are the agents that can induce cancer called?

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Correct Answer: A. Carcinogens. Carcinogens can be physical, chemical, or biological agents.

Question 71: Which of the following is NOT a cause of cancer?

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Correct Answer: D. Allergies. Allergies are an immune system response and not directly related to cancer development.

Question 72: What is a benign tumor?

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Correct Answer: B. A tumor that does not spread to other parts of the body. Benign tumors are generally considered non-cancerous.

Question 73: What is a malignant tumor?

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Correct Answer: B. A tumor that spreads to other parts of the body. Malignant tumors are cancerous and can invade surrounding tissues.

Question 74: What is the process of cancer spreading to other parts of the body called?

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Correct Answer: A. Metastasis. Metastasis is the process by which cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and form new tumors in other parts of the body.

Question 75: Which of the following is a physical carcinogen?

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Correct Answer: A. X-rays. Physical carcinogens include ionizing radiation like X-rays and UV radiation.

Question 76: Which of the following is a chemical carcinogen?

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Correct Answer: A. Tobacco smoke. Chemical carcinogens are found in various substances, including tobacco smoke, industrial chemicals, and certain food additives.

Question 77: Which of the following is a biological carcinogen?

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Correct Answer: A. Viruses. Biological carcinogens include certain viruses, bacteria, and parasites.

Question 78: What are cancer-causing viruses called?

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Correct Answer: A. Oncogenic viruses. These viruses have the potential to cause cancer.

Question 79: What are cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes?

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Correct Answer: A. Genes that can cause cancer when activated. Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that can become oncogenes due to mutations or other factors.

Question 80: Which of the following is an example of an oncogenic virus?

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Correct Answer: A. Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is known to cause cervical cancer.

Question 81: What is the process of removing a tissue sample for examination under a microscope called?

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Correct Answer: A. Biopsy. Biopsy involves removing a small tissue sample for examination by a pathologist.

Question 82: Which imaging technique uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internal organs?

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Correct Answer: A. CT scan. CT scan stands for computed tomography.

Question 83: Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionizing radiation to detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue?

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Correct Answer: A. MRI scan. MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging.

Question 84: Which of the following is NOT a common treatment for cancer?

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Correct Answer: D. Antibiotics. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not cancer.

Question 85: What is the process of using high-energy rays to kill cancer cells called?

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Correct Answer: A. Radiation therapy. Radiation therapy uses high-energy rays to target and destroy cancer cells.

Question 86: What is the process of stimulating the body’s immune system to fight cancer called?

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Correct Answer: A. Immunotherapy. Immunotherapy aims to boost the body’s natural defenses against cancer.

Question 87: Which of the following is an opioid drug?

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Correct Answer: A. Heroin. Heroin is an opioid drug derived from morphine.

Question 88: Which plant is the source of cannabinoids?

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Correct Answer: C. Cannabis sativa. Cannabinoids like marijuana and hashish are obtained from this plant.

Question 89: Which of the following is a coca alkaloid?

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Correct Answer: B. Cocaine. Cocaine is a coca alkaloid that acts as a stimulant.

Question 90: Which of the following is NOT an immediate effect of drug abuse?

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Correct Answer: D. Depression. While depression can be a long-term consequence, the immediate effects of drug abuse are often stimulatory or euphoric.

Question 91: What is the effect of heroin on body functions?

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Correct Answer: B. Slows down body functions. Heroin is a depressant.

Question 92: Which neurotransmitter’s transport is interfered with by cocaine?

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Correct Answer: B. Dopamine. Cocaine interferes with dopamine transport, leading to its accumulation and stimulatory effects.

Question 93: What is the typical age range for adolescence?

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Correct Answer: B. 12-18 years. Adolescence is a transitional period between childhood and adulthood.

Question 94: Which of the following is NOT a common reason for drug/alcohol abuse among adolescents?

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Correct Answer: D. Lack of parental love. While family dynamics can play a role, the primary reasons for drug abuse among adolescents are often related to curiosity, peer pressure, and the desire for new experiences.

Question 95: How can stress contribute to drug/alcohol abuse in adolescents?

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Correct Answer: A. It can lead them to seek unhealthy coping mechanisms. Adolescents may turn to drugs or alcohol to escape from stress or negative emotions.

Question 96: What is addiction?

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Correct Answer: C. Both A and B. Addiction involves both physical and psychological dependence.

Question 97: What is drug tolerance?

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Correct Answer: B. The need for increasing amounts of a drug to achieve the same effect. Tolerance develops with repeated drug use, requiring higher doses for the desired effect.

Question 98: What is withdrawal syndrome?

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Correct Answer: A. A set of characteristic and unpleasant symptoms that occur when drug use is abruptly stopped. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical and psychological.

Question 99: Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of drug/alcohol abuse?

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Correct Answer: D. Improved physical health. Drug and alcohol abuse have detrimental effects on physical health.

Question 100: How can drug/alcohol abuse affect an individual’s social life?

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Correct Answer: A. It can lead to social isolation and strained relationships. Drug and alcohol abuse can lead to social problems, financial difficulties, and relationship breakdowns.

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