Human Health and Disease MCQ. Test your understanding of Human Health and Disease with these MCQs. Topics include diseases, immunity, AIDS, cancer, and drug abuse. For Class 11-12.
Human Health and Disease MCQ – Mock Online Test
Question 1: Which of the following statements best defines ‘health’ according to the modern concept?
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Correct Answer: B. A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being. Modern definitions of health go beyond just the absence of disease.
Question 2: What did early Greeks like Hippocrates believe about the cause of diseases?
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Correct Answer: B. Imbalance of certain ‘humors’ in the body. They believed that an imbalance of these ‘humors’ led to different diseases.
Question 3: Whose work disproved the ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health?
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Correct Answer: B. William Harvey. His discovery of blood circulation challenged the existing beliefs about the causes of disease.
Question 4: Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease?
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Correct Answer: C. Pneumonia. Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens like bacteria, viruses, etc.
Question 5: Non-infectious diseases are:
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Correct Answer: C. Not caused by pathogens. These diseases can arise from genetic factors, lifestyle choices, or environmental factors.
Question 6: Which of the following is a characteristic of an infectious disease?
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Correct Answer: B. It is caused by a pathogen. Pathogens like bacteria, viruses, or fungi can cause infectious diseases.
Question 7: Genetic disorders are:
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Correct Answer: C. Often inherited from parents. These disorders arise from abnormalities in an individual’s genetic makeup.
Question 8: Which of the following lifestyle factors can impact health?
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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Diet, exercise, and sleep are crucial components of a healthy lifestyle.
Question 9: Infections can be caused by:
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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Bacteria, viruses, and fungi are common pathogens that can cause infections.
Question 10: Which bacterium causes typhoid fever?
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Correct Answer: B. Salmonella typhi. This bacterium enters the body through contaminated food and water.
Question 11: What test is used to confirm typhoid fever?
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Correct Answer: B. Widal test. This test is commonly used to confirm typhoid fever.
Question 12: Pneumonia primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?
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Correct Answer: C. Alveoli (air sacs) of the lungs. Pneumonia causes the alveoli to fill with fluid, making breathing difficult.
Question 13: The common cold is caused by which type of pathogen?
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Correct Answer: B. Virus. Rhinoviruses are a common cause of the common cold.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of the common cold?
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Correct Answer: D. Chest pain. Chest pain is not typically associated with the common cold.
Question 15: How is the common cold typically transmitted?
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Correct Answer: D. Through respiratory droplets from an infected person. These droplets can be inhaled directly or transmitted through contaminated objects.
Question 16: Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
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Correct Answer: B. Malaria. Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium.
Question 17: What is the vector (transmitting agent) for malaria?
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Correct Answer: B. Female Anopheles mosquito. The Plasmodium parasite is transmitted through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Question 18: Amoebiasis is caused by which parasite?
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Correct Answer: B. Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan parasite infects the large intestine.
Question 19: Ascariasis is caused by which type of pathogen?
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Correct Answer: C. Helminth (roundworm). Ascaris is an intestinal parasite that causes ascariasis.
Question 20: Elephantiasis is caused by which type of pathogen?
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Correct Answer: C. Helminth (filarial worm). Wuchereria is the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis.
Question 21: Which of the following is a common symptom of elephantiasis?
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Correct Answer: B. Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels. This inflammation often occurs in the lower limbs.
Question 22: Ringworm is caused by which type of pathogen?
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Correct Answer: C. Fungus. Fungi like Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton can cause ringworm.
Question 23: Which of the following is a common symptom of ringworm?
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Correct Answer: A. Dry, scaly lesions on the skin. These lesions are often accompanied by intense itching.
Question 24: Ringworm infections are commonly acquired from:
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Correct Answer: C. Soil or by using contaminated objects. Ringworm can be spread through contact with soil or by sharing personal items like towels or combs.
Question 25: What is immunity?
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Correct Answer: A. The ability of the body to fight disease-causing organisms. This ability is conferred by the immune system.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a type of immunity?
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Correct Answer: C. Reactive immunity. The main types of immunity are innate and acquired.
Question 27: Which type of immunity is present at birth?
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Correct Answer: B. Innate immunity. Innate immunity provides a non-specific defense against pathogens.
Question 28: Which type of immunity is pathogen-specific?
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Correct Answer: B. Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity develops after exposure to a specific pathogen.
Question 29: Which type of immunity is characterized by memory?
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Correct Answer: B. Acquired immunity. The acquired immune system can “remember” previous encounters with pathogens.
Question 30: Which type of immunity provides a non-specific defense?
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Correct Answer: A. Innate immunity. Innate immunity provides a general defense against a wide range of pathogens.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT a type of barrier in innate immunity?
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Correct Answer: D. Memory barriers. Memory is a characteristic of acquired immunity, not innate immunity.
Question 32: Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier in innate immunity?
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Correct Answer: A. Skin. The skin acts as a primary physical barrier to prevent the entry of pathogens.
Question 33: Which cells are involved in the cellular barriers of innate immunity?
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Correct Answer: A. Leukocytes (WBCs). Certain types of leukocytes, like neutrophils and macrophages, can engulf and destroy microbes.
Question 34: Which type of cells are responsible for the production of antibodies?
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Correct Answer: B. B-lymphocytes. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to pathogens.
Question 35: What is the other name for antibody-mediated immune response?
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Correct Answer: B. Humoral immune response. Antibodies are found in the blood, hence the name humoral.
Question 36: Which type of cells mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI)?
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Correct Answer: A. T-lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
Question 37: Which type of immunity is developed when the body is exposed to antigens?
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Correct Answer: A. Active immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its own antibodies.
Question 38: Which type of immunity is developed when ready-made antibodies are given to the body?
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Correct Answer: B. Passive immunity. Passive immunity provides immediate but temporary protection.
Question 39: Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
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Correct Answer: B. Mother’s milk providing antibodies to the infant. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid produced in the initial days of lactation, is rich in antibodies.
Question 40: What is the principle of vaccination based on?
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Correct Answer: C. The body’s ability to remember previous encounters with pathogens. Vaccination triggers the production of memory cells that can quickly recognize and respond to future infections.
Question 41: What is injected during vaccination?
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Correct Answer: C. Both A and B. Vaccines can contain antigenic proteins or weakened pathogens.
Question 42: What is passive immunization?
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Correct Answer: A. Injecting preformed antibodies or antitoxin. This provides immediate protection, such as in the case of tetanus or snakebites.
Question 43: What is an allergy?
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Correct Answer: A. An exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens. Allergies involve an overreaction of the immune system to harmless substances.
Question 44: What are allergens?
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Correct Answer: A. Substances that cause allergies. Allergens can include pollen, dust mites, and animal dander.
Question 45: Which type of antibody is associated with allergies?
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Correct Answer: C. IgE. IgE antibodies play a key role in allergic reactions.
Question 46: What is autoimmunity?
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Correct Answer: A. When the body attacks its own cells. Autoimmune diseases result from the immune system mistakenly targeting the body’s own tissues.
Question 47: Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease?
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Correct Answer: A. Rheumatoid arthritis. In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the lining of the joints.
Question 48: What is the basis of self and non-self recognition in the immune system?
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Correct Answer: D. It is not yet fully understood. The exact mechanisms of self and non-self recognition are still being researched.
Question 49: Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
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Correct Answer: A. Bone marrow. Bone marrow is where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
Question 50: Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
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Correct Answer: B. Spleen. The spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ where lymphocytes interact with antigens.
Question 51: What does AIDS stand for?
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Correct Answer: A. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. AIDS is a condition that develops due to the deficiency of the immune system.
Question 52: What is the causative agent of AIDS?
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Correct Answer: C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). HIV is a retrovirus that attacks the immune system.
Question 53: What type of virus is HIV?
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Correct Answer: A. Retrovirus. Retroviruses have RNA as their genetic material.
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?
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Correct Answer: C. Mosquito bites. HIV is not transmitted through insect bites.
Question 55: Which of the following groups is NOT at high risk of HIV infection?
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Correct Answer: C. People who eat contaminated food. HIV is not transmitted through food.
Question 56: Can HIV be transmitted through casual contact like hugging or shaking hands?
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Correct Answer: B. No. HIV is not transmitted through casual contact.
Question 57: Which enzyme is crucial for HIV replication?
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Correct Answer: A. Reverse transcriptase. This enzyme helps convert the viral RNA into DNA.
Question 58: What type of cells does HIV primarily infect?
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Correct Answer: B. Helper T-lymphocytes (TH cells). These cells are vital for the immune response.
Question 59: Where does the integration of viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA take place?
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Correct Answer: B. Nucleus. The viral DNA integrates into the host cell’s DNA in the nucleus.
Question 60: What is the initial symptom of HIV infection?
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Correct Answer: A. Fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. These symptoms are often seen in the early stages of HIV infection.
Question 61: Why do opportunistic infections occur in AIDS patients?
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Correct Answer: A. Due to a weakened immune system. The decrease in helper T-lymphocytes makes the body vulnerable to infections.
Question 62: Is there a cure for AIDS?
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Correct Answer: B. No. Currently, there is no cure for AIDS, but treatments can help manage the disease.
Question 63: What is the commonly used diagnostic test for AIDS?
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Correct Answer: C. ELISA. ELISA stands for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
Question 64: What does ELISA detect?
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Correct Answer: C. Antibodies against HIV. ELISA detects the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to HIV infection.
Question 65: Is ELISA always accurate in detecting HIV?
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Correct Answer: B. No. ELISA may give false positives or false negatives in some cases.
Question 66: What type of drugs are used to treat AIDS?
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Correct Answer: A. Anti-retroviral drugs. These drugs help to inhibit the replication of HIV.
Question 67: What is the best option for preventing AIDS?
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Correct Answer: C. Prevention. As there is no cure for AIDS, prevention is crucial.
Question 68: Which organization in India is primarily involved in AIDS control and prevention?
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Correct Answer: C. NACO. NACO stands for National AIDS Control Organization.
Question 69: What is cancer?
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Correct Answer: A. A disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth. Cancer cells lose the normal regulatory mechanisms that control cell growth and division.
Question 70: What are the agents that can induce cancer called?
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Correct Answer: A. Carcinogens. Carcinogens can be physical, chemical, or biological agents.
Question 71: Which of the following is NOT a cause of cancer?
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Correct Answer: D. Allergies. Allergies are an immune system response and not directly related to cancer development.
Question 72: What is a benign tumor?
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Correct Answer: B. A tumor that does not spread to other parts of the body. Benign tumors are generally considered non-cancerous.
Question 73: What is a malignant tumor?
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Correct Answer: B. A tumor that spreads to other parts of the body. Malignant tumors are cancerous and can invade surrounding tissues.
Question 74: What is the process of cancer spreading to other parts of the body called?
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Correct Answer: A. Metastasis. Metastasis is the process by which cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and form new tumors in other parts of the body.
Question 75: Which of the following is a physical carcinogen?
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Correct Answer: A. X-rays. Physical carcinogens include ionizing radiation like X-rays and UV radiation.
Question 76: Which of the following is a chemical carcinogen?
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Correct Answer: A. Tobacco smoke. Chemical carcinogens are found in various substances, including tobacco smoke, industrial chemicals, and certain food additives.
Question 77: Which of the following is a biological carcinogen?
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Correct Answer: A. Viruses. Biological carcinogens include certain viruses, bacteria, and parasites.
Question 78: What are cancer-causing viruses called?
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Correct Answer: A. Oncogenic viruses. These viruses have the potential to cause cancer.
Question 79: What are cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes?
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Correct Answer: A. Genes that can cause cancer when activated. Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that can become oncogenes due to mutations or other factors.
Question 80: Which of the following is an example of an oncogenic virus?
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Correct Answer: A. Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is known to cause cervical cancer.
Question 81: What is the process of removing a tissue sample for examination under a microscope called?
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Correct Answer: A. Biopsy. Biopsy involves removing a small tissue sample for examination by a pathologist.
Question 82: Which imaging technique uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internal organs?
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Correct Answer: A. CT scan. CT scan stands for computed tomography.
Question 83: Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionizing radiation to detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue?
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Correct Answer: A. MRI scan. MRI stands for magnetic resonance imaging.
Question 84: Which of the following is NOT a common treatment for cancer?
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Correct Answer: D. Antibiotics. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not cancer.
Question 85: What is the process of using high-energy rays to kill cancer cells called?
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Correct Answer: A. Radiation therapy. Radiation therapy uses high-energy rays to target and destroy cancer cells.
Question 86: What is the process of stimulating the body’s immune system to fight cancer called?
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Correct Answer: A. Immunotherapy. Immunotherapy aims to boost the body’s natural defenses against cancer.
Question 87: Which of the following is an opioid drug?
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Correct Answer: A. Heroin. Heroin is an opioid drug derived from morphine.
Question 88: Which plant is the source of cannabinoids?
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Correct Answer: C. Cannabis sativa. Cannabinoids like marijuana and hashish are obtained from this plant.
Question 89: Which of the following is a coca alkaloid?
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Correct Answer: B. Cocaine. Cocaine is a coca alkaloid that acts as a stimulant.
Question 90: Which of the following is NOT an immediate effect of drug abuse?
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Correct Answer: D. Depression. While depression can be a long-term consequence, the immediate effects of drug abuse are often stimulatory or euphoric.
Question 91: What is the effect of heroin on body functions?
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Correct Answer: B. Slows down body functions. Heroin is a depressant.
Question 92: Which neurotransmitter’s transport is interfered with by cocaine?
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Correct Answer: B. Dopamine. Cocaine interferes with dopamine transport, leading to its accumulation and stimulatory effects.
Question 93: What is the typical age range for adolescence?
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Correct Answer: B. 12-18 years. Adolescence is a transitional period between childhood and adulthood.
Question 94: Which of the following is NOT a common reason for drug/alcohol abuse among adolescents?
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Correct Answer: D. Lack of parental love. While family dynamics can play a role, the primary reasons for drug abuse among adolescents are often related to curiosity, peer pressure, and the desire for new experiences.
Question 95: How can stress contribute to drug/alcohol abuse in adolescents?
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Correct Answer: A. It can lead them to seek unhealthy coping mechanisms. Adolescents may turn to drugs or alcohol to escape from stress or negative emotions.
Question 96: What is addiction?
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Correct Answer: C. Both A and B. Addiction involves both physical and psychological dependence.
Question 97: What is drug tolerance?
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Correct Answer: B. The need for increasing amounts of a drug to achieve the same effect. Tolerance develops with repeated drug use, requiring higher doses for the desired effect.
Question 98: What is withdrawal syndrome?
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Correct Answer: A. A set of characteristic and unpleasant symptoms that occur when drug use is abruptly stopped. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical and psychological.
Question 99: Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of drug/alcohol abuse?
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Correct Answer: D. Improved physical health. Drug and alcohol abuse have detrimental effects on physical health.
Question 100: How can drug/alcohol abuse affect an individual’s social life?
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Correct Answer: A. It can lead to social isolation and strained relationships. Drug and alcohol abuse can lead to social problems, financial difficulties, and relationship breakdowns.