General Science 100 MCQ BPSC Exam. Enhance General Science understanding for BPSC exams. Practise 100 objective questions on Physics, Chemistry & Biology. Answers provided.
General Science 100 MCQ BPSC Exam – Mock Online Test
Question 1: A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Neglecting air resistance, which property of the ball remains constant throughout its motion?
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Kinetic Energy
D. Potential Energy
B. Acceleration. The acceleration due to gravity remains constant throughout the ball’s motion.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure?
A. Pascal (Pa)
B. Newton (N)
C. Atmosphere (atm)
D. Bar
B. Newton (N). Newtons measure force, not pressure. Pressure is force per unit area.
Question 3: A block of wood floats on water. What can you say about the density of the wood compared to the density of water?
A. The wood is denser than water.
B. The wood is less dense than water.
C. The wood has the same density as water.
D. Density is not relevant to floating.
B. The wood is less dense than water. Objects less dense than a fluid will float in that fluid.
Question 4: Two objects of different masses are dropped from the same height at the same time. Neglecting air resistance, which object will hit the ground first?
A. The heavier object
B. The lighter object
C. They will hit the ground at the same time
D. It depends on the shape of the objects
C. They will hit the ground at the same time. Gravity accelerates all objects equally, regardless of mass.
Question 5: What is the principle behind hydraulic brakes in vehicles?
A. Archimedes’ Principle
B. Pascal’s Law
C. Bernoulli’s Principle
D. Newton’s Law of Gravitation
B. Pascal’s Law. Pascal’s Law states that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally throughout the fluid.
Question 6: Which of the following is the best conductor of heat?
A. Wood
B. Plastic
C. Copper
D. Air
C. Copper. Metals are generally excellent conductors of heat.
Question 7: What happens to the volume of a gas when its temperature increases at constant pressure?
A. The volume decreases.
B. The volume increases.
C. The volume remains the same.
D. The volume becomes zero.
B. The volume increases. This is described by Charles’s Law.
Question 8: Which of the following is an example of heat transfer by convection?
A. Warming your hands by a fire
B. A hot air balloon rising
C. Touching a hot stove
D. Sunlight warming the Earth
B. A hot air balloon rising. Convection involves heat transfer through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases).
Question 9: What is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in a vacuum?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation
C. Radiation. Radiation can transfer heat through the vacuum of space, unlike conduction or convection.
Question 10: The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of:
A. Conservation of momentum
B. Conservation of energy
C. Conservation of mass
D. Conservation of charge
B. Conservation of energy. The first law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or transformed.
Question 11: The pitch of a sound wave is determined by its:
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Speed
B. Frequency. Higher frequency corresponds to a higher pitch.
Question 12: What causes the Doppler effect?
A. The interference of sound waves
B. The reflection of sound waves
C. The relative motion between the source of sound and the observer
D. The absorption of sound waves
C. The relative motion between the source of sound and the observer. This relative motion causes a shift in the perceived frequency of the sound.
Question 13: Sound waves cannot travel through:
A. Air
B. Water
C. A vacuum
D. Steel
C. A vacuum. Sound waves require a medium (like air, water, or solids) to propagate.
Question 14: A convex lens:
A. Diverges light rays
B. Converges light rays
C. Reflects light rays
D. Absorbs light rays
B. Converges light rays. Convex lenses bring light rays together at a focal point.
Question 15: What type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness (myopia)?
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Bifocal lens
D. Plano-convex lens
B. Concave lens. Concave lenses diverge light rays, which helps to focus the image correctly on the retina for nearsighted individuals.
Question 16: The primary colors of light are:
A. Red, yellow, blue
B. Red, green, blue
C. Cyan, magenta, yellow
D. Black, white, gray
B. Red, green, blue. These are the additive primary colors of light.
Question 17: Which phenomenon demonstrates the wave nature of light?
A. Photoelectric effect
B. Diffraction
C. Blackbody radiation
D. Compton scattering
B. Diffraction. Diffraction is the bending of waves around obstacles or through openings.
Question 18: What is the function of the iris in the human eye?
A. To focus light on the retina
B. To control the amount of light entering the eye
C. To detect color
D. To protect the eye from injury
B. To control the amount of light entering the eye. The iris adjusts the size of the pupil to regulate light entry.
Question 19: What is the unit of electrical resistance?
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Ohm
D. Watt
C. Ohm. Resistance is measured in ohms.
Question 20: In a series circuit, the current:
A. Is the same at all points
B. Varies at different points
C. Is zero
D. Is infinite
A. Is the same at all points. In a series circuit, there is only one path for the current to flow.
Question 21: What happens when a magnet is cut in half?
A. It loses its magnetism.
B. It creates two magnets, each with a north and south pole.
C. It creates one north pole and one south pole.
D. It becomes a monopole.
B. It creates two magnets, each with a north and south pole. You cannot isolate a north or south pole.
Question 22: Electromagnetic induction is the process of:
A. Generating electricity from magnetism
B. Generating magnetism from electricity
C. Converting electricity into heat
D. Converting magnetism into heat
A. Generating electricity from magnetism. This is the principle behind generators.
Question 23: What is the charge of a proton?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. It depends on the element
A. Positive. Protons have a positive charge.
Question 24: Which type of radioactive decay emits an electron?
A. Alpha decay
B. Beta decay
C. Gamma decay
D. Neutron emission
B. Beta decay. Beta decay involves the emission of an electron (or positron).
Question 25: Einstein’s theory of special relativity deals with:
A. The relationship between mass and energy
B. The behavior of objects in gravitational fields
C. The nature of black holes
D. The origin of the universe
A. The relationship between mass and energy. The famous equation $E=mc^2$ comes from this theory.
Question 26: What is the smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element?
A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Compound
D. Ion
A. Atom. Atoms are the fundamental building blocks of elements.
Question 27: Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Melting ice
B. Boiling water
C. Burning wood
D. Cutting paper
C. Burning wood. Burning wood involves a change in the chemical composition of the wood.
Question 28: What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 14
D. 10
B. 7. A pH of 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic, and above 7 is basic.
Question 29: What is the chemical symbol for gold?
A. Ag
B. Au
C. Fe
D. Hg
B. Au. Au is the chemical symbol derived from the Latin word “aurum”.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Vacuum
D. Vacuum. A vacuum is the absence of matter.
Question 31: Which element is the most abundant in the Earth’s crust?
A. Oxygen
B. Silicon
C. Aluminum
D. Iron
A. Oxygen. Oxygen makes up a significant portion of the Earth’s crust in various compounds.
Question 32: What is the chemical formula for water?
A. $H_2O$
B. $CO_2$
C. NaCl
D. $O_2$
A. $H_2O$. Water is composed of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
Question 33: Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
A. Sodium
B. Chlorine
C. Helium
D. Oxygen
C. Helium. Noble gases are in Group 18 of the periodic table and are known for their low reactivity.
Question 34: What is the process of coating iron with zinc to prevent rusting called?
A. Galvanization
B. Alloying
C. Electrolysis
D. Oxidation
A. Galvanization. This process creates a protective layer of zinc on the iron.
Question 35: Which of the following is a property of alkali metals?
A. They are highly reactive.
B. They are poor conductors of electricity.
C. They have high melting points.
D. They are non-metals.
A. They are highly reactive. Alkali metals (Group 1) are known for their high reactivity with water and air.
Question 36: What is the charge of a chloride ion?
A. +1
B. -1
C. +2
D. -2
B. -1. Chlorine gains one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, giving it a negative charge.
Question 37: Which of the following is an example of an alloy?
A. Gold
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. Diamond
C. Bronze. Bronze is an alloy made primarily of copper and tin.
Question 38: What is the main component of natural gas?
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Propane
D. Butane
A. Methane. Methane ($CH_4$) is the simplest hydrocarbon and the main component of natural gas.
Question 39: Which of the following is the functional group for alcohols?
A. -COOH
B. -CHO
C. -OH
D. -$NH_2$
C. -OH. The hydroxyl group (-OH) is characteristic of alcohols.
Question 40: What is the general formula for alkanes?
A. $C_nH_{2n}$
B. $C_nH_{2n+2}$
C. $C_nH_{2n-2}$
D. $C_nH_n$
B. $C_nH_{2n+2}$. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with this general formula.
Question 41: Which of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
A. Ethane
B. Propane
C. Butene
D. Pentane
C. Butene. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain double or triple bonds between carbon atoms.
Question 42: What is the process of converting vegetable oils into solid fats called?
A. Hydrogenation
B. Saponification
C. Fermentation
D. Polymerization
A. Hydrogenation. This process adds hydrogen to unsaturated fats, making them more solid.
Question 43: Which of the following is a polymer?
A. Glucose
B. Ethanol
C. Polyethylene
D. Acetic acid
C. Polyethylene. Polyethylene is a common plastic made from repeating ethylene units.
Question 44: Which of the following is a major air pollutant?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Water vapor
C. Carbon dioxide. While essential for life, excess carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) acts as a greenhouse gas and is considered a pollutant at high concentrations, contributing to climate change.
Question 45: What is the main cause of acid rain?
A. Volcanic eruptions
B. Burning of fossil fuels
C. Deforestation
D. Agricultural activities
B. Burning of fossil fuels. This releases sulfur dioxide ($SO_2$) and nitrogen oxides ($NO_x$), which react with water in the atmosphere to form acid rain.
Question 46: What is the process of enriching a water body with nutrients, leading to excessive algal growth, called?
A. Eutrophication
B. Biomagnification
C. Bioaccumulation
D. Bioremediation
A. Eutrophication. This often results from fertilizer runoff and sewage discharge.
Question 47: Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A. Methane
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Argon
A. Methane. Methane ($CH_4$) is a potent greenhouse gas that traps heat in the atmosphere.
Question 48: What is the primary source of ozone layer depletion?
A. Carbon dioxide emissions
B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
C. Methane emissions
D. Deforestation
B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs, previously used in refrigerants and aerosols, break down ozone ($O_3$) in the stratosphere.
Question 49: What is the process of removing salt from seawater called?
A. Desalination
B. Filtration
C. Distillation
D. Precipitation
A. Desalination. This process makes seawater suitable for drinking and irrigation.
Question 50: Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
A. Plastic
B. Glass
C. Food scraps
D. Metal
C. Food scraps. Biodegradable waste can be broken down naturally by microorganisms.
Question 51: What is the process by which plants convert sunlight into chemical energy?
A. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Transpiration
D. Pollination
A. Photosynthesis. Plants use chlorophyll to capture light energy and produce glucose.
Question 52: Which part of the plant is responsible for absorbing water and minerals from the soil?
A. Leaves
B. Stem
C. Roots
D. Flowers
C. Roots. Roots anchor the plant and absorb water and nutrients.
Question 53: What is the function of the xylem in plants?
A. To transport water and minerals from roots to leaves
B. To transport food from leaves to other parts of the plant
C. To store food
D. To provide support
A. To transport water and minerals from roots to leaves. The xylem is a vascular tissue responsible for this upward transport.
Question 54: Which of the following is NOT a type of plant tissue?
A. Dermal tissue
B. Vascular tissue
C. Ground tissue
D. Muscle tissue
D. Muscle tissue. Muscle tissue is found in animals, not plants.
Question 55: What is the male reproductive part of a flower called?
A. Pistil
B. Stamen
C. Sepal
D. Petal
B. Stamen. The stamen consists of the anther and filament and produces pollen.
Question 56: Which of the following is an example of a bryophyte?
A. Fern
B. Moss
C. Pine tree
D. Rose bush
B. Moss. Bryophytes are non-vascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
Question 57: Which of the following animals is an invertebrate?
A. Fish
B. Bird
C. Reptile
D. Insect
D. Insect. Invertebrates lack a backbone.
Question 58: What is the function of the respiratory system in animals?
A. To transport blood throughout the body
B. To break down food and absorb nutrients
C. To exchange gases with the environment
D. To remove waste products from the body
C. To exchange gases with the environment. The respiratory system takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.
Question 59: Which of the following is a cold-blooded animal?
A. Mammal
B. Bird
C. Reptile
D. Amphibian
C. Reptile. Cold-blooded (poikilothermic or ectothermic) animals rely on external sources to regulate their body temperature. Amphibians are also typically considered cold-blooded.
Question 60: What is the process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in insects called?
A. Metamorphosis
B. Migration
C. Hibernation
D. Adaptation
A. Metamorphosis. This involves significant changes in the insect’s body structure.
Question 61: Which of the following is an example of a mammal?
A. Snake
B. Frog
C. Whale
D. Shark
C. Whale. Mammals are warm-blooded vertebrates characterized by hair, mammary glands, and breathing air.
Question 62: What is the function of the gills in fish?
A. To extract oxygen from water
B. To regulate buoyancy
C. To detect movement in the water
D. To capture prey
A. To extract oxygen from water. Gills are specialized organs for gas exchange in aquatic environments.
Question 63: Which organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Kidney
A. Heart. The heart is the central pump of the circulatory system.
Question 64: What is the function of the digestive system?
A. To break down food and absorb nutrients
B. To exchange gases with the environment
C. To remove waste products from the body
D. To fight off infections
A. To break down food and absorb nutrients. The digestive system processes food into usable forms for the body.
Question 65: Which of the following is a component of the nervous system?
A. Brain
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Kidney
A. Brain. The brain is the central control organ of the nervous system.
Question 66: What is the function of white blood cells in the human body?
A. To transport oxygen
B. To clot blood
C. To fight infections
D. To regulate hormones
C. To fight infections. White blood cells (leukocytes) are a key part of the immune system.
Question 67: Which disease is caused by a deficiency of insulin?
A. Diabetes
B. Anemia
C. Asthma
D. Arthritis
A. Diabetes. Specifically, Type 1 diabetes is caused by the body’s inability to produce enough insulin, which regulates blood sugar.
Question 68: What is the main function of the kidneys?
A. To filter waste products from the blood
B. To produce hormones
C. To digest food
D. To store nutrients
A. To filter waste products from the blood. The kidneys remove waste materials and excess fluid, producing urine.
Question 69: What is the basic unit of heredity?
A. Gene
B. Chromosome
C. DNA
D. RNA
A. Gene. Genes are segments of DNA that carry the instructions for specific traits.
Question 70: Which molecule carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA polymerase
A. mRNA. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic code transcribed from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.
Question 71: What is the process of creating a copy of DNA called?
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Mutation
A. Replication. DNA replication is the process by which a DNA molecule makes an identical copy of itself.
Question 72: Who is credited with the theory of evolution by natural selection?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Gregor Mendel
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Albert Einstein
A. Charles Darwin. Darwin proposed that species evolve over time through the mechanism of natural selection.
Question 73: What is the process by which organisms with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce?
A. Natural selection
B. Genetic drift
C. Gene flow
D. Mutation
A. Natural selection. This differential survival and reproduction based on advantageous traits is the core mechanism of evolution.
Question 74: What is a community of interacting organisms and their physical environment called?
A. Ecosystem
B. Population
C. Biosphere
D. Habitat
A. Ecosystem. Ecosystems encompass all living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) components interacting in a specific area.
Question 75: What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?
A. To produce food through photosynthesis
B. To break down dead organisms and recycle nutrients
C. To consume other organisms for energy
D. To control populations of other organisms
B. To break down dead organisms and recycle nutrients. Decomposers like bacteria and fungi play a vital role in nutrient cycling.
Question 76: What is the variety of life in a particular habitat or ecosystem called?
A. Biodiversity
B. Biomass
C. Biomagnification
D. Bioaccumulation
A. Biodiversity. Biodiversity refers to the variety of species, genetic variation within species, and the diversity of ecosystems.
Question 77: Which of the following is a major threat to biodiversity?
A. Habitat loss
B. Conservation efforts
C. Sustainable practices
D. Ecotourism
A. Habitat loss. The destruction and fragmentation of natural habitats is a leading cause of species decline and biodiversity loss.
Question 78: What is the process by which certain pollutants become more concentrated as they move up the food chain?
A. Biomagnification
B. Bioaccumulation
C. Eutrophication
D. Acidification
A. Biomagnification. This process leads to higher concentrations of toxins in organisms at higher trophic levels.
Question 79: What is the field of science that deals with the manipulation of matter on an atomic and molecular scale?
A. Nanotechnology
B. Biotechnology
C. Information technology
D. Space technology
A. Nanotechnology. Nanotechnology involves designing, producing, and applying structures, devices, and systems by controlling shape and size at the nanometer scale.
Question 80: Which of the following is an application of biotechnology?
A. Developing genetically modified crops
B. Designing new computer processors
C. Launching satellites into space
D. Creating new materials with specific properties
A. Developing genetically modified crops. Biotechnology uses biological systems, living organisms, or derivatives thereof to make or modify products or processes for specific use.
Question 81: What is the technology that allows computers to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence?
A. Artificial intelligence (AI)
B. Cloud computing
C. Internet of Things (IoT)
D. Virtual reality (VR)
A. Artificial intelligence (AI). AI involves creating computer systems that can perform tasks such as learning, problem-solving, and decision-making.
Question 82: Which of the following is a recent development in space technology?
A. Reusable rockets
B. The invention of the telescope
C. The first human landing on the moon
D. The discovery of Pluto
A. Reusable rockets. Companies like SpaceX have pioneered reusable rocket technology to significantly lower the cost of space launches.
Question 83: What is the technology that connects everyday objects to the internet, allowing them to collect and exchange data?
A. Internet of Things (IoT)
B. Cloud computing
C. Artificial intelligence (AI)
D. Virtual reality (VR)
A. Internet of Things (IoT). IoT refers to the network of physical objects embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies that enable them to connect and exchange data.
Question 84: Which of the following is an application of cloud computing?
A. Storing and accessing data over the internet
B. Developing new drugs
C. Manufacturing new materials
D. Launching satellites into space
A. Storing and accessing data over the internet. Cloud computing delivers computing services—including servers, storage, databases, networking, software—over the Internet.
Question 85: Which organization is responsible for India’s space program?
A. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
B. DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation)
C. BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre)
D. CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research)
A. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). ISRO is the primary agency for space exploration, satellite development, and launch vehicle technology in India.
Question 86: What was the name of India’s first satellite?
A. Aryabhata
B. Bhaskara
C. Rohini
D. INSAT
A. Aryabhata. Named after the ancient Indian mathematician, Aryabhata was launched by the Soviet Union in 1975.
Question 87: Which of the following is a major achievement of India’s space program?
A. Chandrayaan missions to the moon
B. Mangalyaan mission to Mars
C. Development of launch vehicles like PSLV and GSLV
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. India has achieved significant milestones including lunar exploration (Chandrayaan), Mars orbiter mission (Mangalyaan), and developing reliable launch vehicles.
Question 88: Which organization is responsible for India’s nuclear program?
A. BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre)
B. DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation)
C. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
D. CSIR (Council of Scientific and Industrial Research)
A. BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre). BARC, under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is India’s premier nuclear research facility.
Question 89: What was the name of India’s first nuclear test?
A. Smiling Buddha
B. Shakti
C. Pokhran-I
D. Agni
A. Smiling Buddha. This was the code name for India’s first successful nuclear bomb test conducted on 18 May 1974 in Pokhran (Pokhran-I).
Question 90: Which of the following is a nuclear power plant in India?
A. Tarapur Atomic Power Station
B. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant
C. Narora Atomic Power Station
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. These are operational nuclear power plants contributing to India’s energy grid.
Question 91: What is the name of India’s indigenously developed ballistic missile?
A. Agni
B. Prithvi
C. Akash
D. Trishul
A. Agni. The Agni series represents India’s medium to intercontinental range ballistic missiles developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
Question 92: Which Indian scientist is known as the “Father of the Indian nuclear program”?
A. Homi J. Bhabha
B. Vikram Sarabhai
C. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
D. C.V. Raman
A. Homi J. Bhabha. Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha was the visionary architect of India’s nuclear energy program.
Question 93: Which of the following is a science and technology initiative in Bihar?
A. Establishment of the Nalanda University
B. Development of the Bihar State Biotechnology Policy
C. Promotion of IT parks and software development
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Bihar has initiated various measures including reviving Nalanda University (with international collaboration), formulating a biotechnology policy, and encouraging IT sector growth.
Question 94: What is the objective of the Bihar State Biotechnology Policy?
A. To promote research and development in biotechnology
B. To attract investment in the biotechnology sector
C. To create employment opportunities in the biotechnology sector
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The policy aims to leverage biotechnology for socio-economic development by fostering research, attracting investment, and generating employment.
Question 95: Which city in Bihar is known for its emerging IT sector?
A. Patna
B. Gaya
C. Muzaffarpur
D. Bhagalpur
A. Patna. Patna, the state capital, has seen the development of IT parks and is attracting IT companies.
Question 96: Which of the following is a science museum in Bihar?
A. Shri Krishna Science Centre, Patna
B. Indira Gandhi Science Complex, Patna
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B. Both the Shri Krishna Science Centre and the Indira Gandhi Science Complex (Planetarium) in Patna aim to promote science education and awareness.
Question 97: What is the focus of the Bihar Agricultural University, Sabour?
A. Research and development in agriculture
B. Providing agricultural education and training
C. Promoting sustainable agricultural practices
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The university is dedicated to advancing agriculture in the state through research, education, and extension activities.
Question 98: Which of the following is a traditional craft of Bihar that involves scientific principles?
A. Madhubani painting
B. Bhagalpuri silk weaving
C. Making of Sikki grass products
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. These crafts involve understanding materials (pigments, fibers, grass properties), processes (weaving techniques, dyeing), and sometimes chemical interactions.
Question 99: What is the role of the Bihar Council on Science and Technology?
A. To advise the state government on science and technology policies
B. To promote scientific research and development in Bihar
C. To popularize science and technology among the public
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The council works towards integrating science and technology into the state’s development plans and promoting a scientific temper.
Question 100: Which of the following is a challenge for science and technology development in Bihar?
A. Lack of adequate infrastructure
B. Limited access to funding and resources
C. Brain drain of skilled professionals
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Bihar faces challenges related to infrastructure, funding, and retaining skilled manpower, which impact the pace of S&T development.
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