General Science 100 MCQ BPSC Exam

General Science 100 MCQ BPSC Exam. Enhance General Science understanding for BPSC exams. Practise 100 objective questions on Physics, Chemistry & Biology. Answers provided.

General Science 100 MCQ BPSC Exam – Mock Online Test

Question 1: A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Neglecting air resistance, which property of the ball remains constant throughout its motion?

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Correct Answer: B. Acceleration. The acceleration due to gravity remains constant throughout the ball’s motion.

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure?

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Correct Answer: B. Newton (N). Newtons measure force, not pressure. Pressure is force per unit area.

Question 3: A block of wood floats on water. What can you say about the density of the wood compared to the density of water?

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Correct Answer: B. The wood is less dense than water. Objects less dense than a fluid will float in that fluid.

Question 4: Two objects of different masses are dropped from the same height at the same time. Neglecting air resistance, which object will hit the ground first?

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Correct Answer: C. They will hit the ground at the same time. Gravity accelerates all objects equally, regardless of mass.

Question 5: What is the principle behind hydraulic brakes in vehicles?

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Correct Answer: B. Pascal’s Law. Pascal’s Law states that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally throughout the fluid.

Question 6: Which of the following is the best conductor of heat?

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Correct Answer: C. Copper. Metals are generally excellent conductors of heat.

Question 7: What happens to the volume of a gas when its temperature increases at constant pressure?

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Correct Answer: B. The volume increases. This is described by Charles’s Law.

Question 8: Which of the following is an example of heat transfer by convection?

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Correct Answer: B. A hot air balloon rising. Convection involves heat transfer through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases).

Question 9: What is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in a vacuum?

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Correct Answer: C. Radiation. Radiation can transfer heat through the vacuum of space, unlike conduction or convection.

Question 10: The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of:

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Correct Answer: B. Conservation of energy. The first law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or transformed.

Question 11: The pitch of a sound wave is determined by its:

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Correct Answer: B. Frequency. Higher frequency corresponds to a higher pitch.

Question 12: What causes the Doppler effect?

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Correct Answer: C. The relative motion between the source of sound and the observer. This relative motion causes a shift in the perceived frequency of the sound.

Question 13: Sound waves cannot travel through:

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Correct Answer: C. A vacuum. Sound waves require a medium (like air, water, or solids) to propagate.

Question 14: A convex lens:

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Correct Answer: B. Converges light rays. Convex lenses bring light rays together at a focal point.

Question 15: What type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness (myopia)?

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Correct Answer: B. Concave lens. Concave lenses diverge light rays, which helps to focus the image correctly on the retina for nearsighted individuals.

Question 16: The primary colors of light are:

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Correct Answer: B. Red, green, blue. These are the additive primary colors of light.

Question 17: Which phenomenon demonstrates the wave nature of light?

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Correct Answer: B. Diffraction. Diffraction is the bending of waves around obstacles or through openings.

Question 18: What is the function of the iris in the human eye?

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Correct Answer: B. To control the amount of light entering the eye. The iris adjusts the size of the pupil to regulate light entry.

Question 19: What is the unit of electrical resistance?

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Correct Answer: C. Ohm. Resistance is measured in ohms.

Question 20: In a series circuit, the current:

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Correct Answer: A. Is the same at all points. In a series circuit, there is only one path for the current to flow.

Question 21: What happens when a magnet is cut in half?

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Correct Answer: B. It creates two magnets, each with a north and south pole. You cannot isolate a north or south pole.

Question 22: Electromagnetic induction is the process of:

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Correct Answer: A. Generating electricity from magnetism. This is the principle behind generators.

Question 23: What is the charge of a proton?

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Correct Answer: A. Positive. Protons have a positive charge.

Question 24: Which type of radioactive decay emits an electron?

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Correct Answer: B. Beta decay. Beta decay involves the emission of an electron (or positron).

Question 25: Einstein’s theory of special relativity deals with:

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Correct Answer: A. The relationship between mass and energy. The famous equation $E=mc^2$ comes from this theory.

Question 26: What is the smallest unit of an element that retains the chemical properties of that element?

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Correct Answer: A. Atom. Atoms are the fundamental building blocks of elements.

Question 27: Which of the following is a chemical change?

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Correct Answer: C. Burning wood. Burning wood involves a change in the chemical composition of the wood.

Question 28: What is the pH of a neutral solution?

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Correct Answer: B. 7. A pH of 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic, and above 7 is basic.

Question 29: What is the chemical symbol for gold?

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Correct Answer: B. Au. Au is the chemical symbol derived from the Latin word “aurum”.

Question 30: Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?

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Correct Answer: D. Vacuum. A vacuum is the absence of matter.

Question 31: Which element is the most abundant in the Earth’s crust?

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Correct Answer: A. Oxygen. Oxygen makes up a significant portion of the Earth’s crust in various compounds.

Question 32: What is the chemical formula for water?

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Correct Answer: A. $H_2O$. Water is composed of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.

Question 33: Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

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Correct Answer: C. Helium. Noble gases are in Group 18 of the periodic table and are known for their low reactivity.

Question 34: What is the process of coating iron with zinc to prevent rusting called?

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Correct Answer: A. Galvanization. This process creates a protective layer of zinc on the iron.

Question 35: Which of the following is a property of alkali metals?

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Correct Answer: A. They are highly reactive. Alkali metals (Group 1) are known for their high reactivity with water and air.

Question 36: What is the charge of a chloride ion?

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Correct Answer: B. -1. Chlorine gains one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, giving it a negative charge.

Question 37: Which of the following is an example of an alloy?

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Correct Answer: C. Bronze. Bronze is an alloy made primarily of copper and tin.

Question 38: What is the main component of natural gas?

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Correct Answer: A. Methane. Methane ($CH_4$) is the simplest hydrocarbon and the main component of natural gas.

Question 39: Which of the following is the functional group for alcohols?

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Correct Answer: C. -OH. The hydroxyl group (-OH) is characteristic of alcohols.

Question 40: What is the general formula for alkanes?

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Correct Answer: B. $C_nH_{2n+2}$. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with this general formula.

Question 41: Which of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

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Correct Answer: C. Butene. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain double or triple bonds between carbon atoms.

Question 42: What is the process of converting vegetable oils into solid fats called?

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Correct Answer: A. Hydrogenation. This process adds hydrogen to unsaturated fats, making them more solid.

Question 43: Which of the following is a polymer?

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Correct Answer: C. Polyethylene. Polyethylene is a common plastic made from repeating ethylene units.

Question 44: Which of the following is a major air pollutant?

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Correct Answer: C. Carbon dioxide. While essential for life, excess carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) acts as a greenhouse gas and is considered a pollutant at high concentrations, contributing to climate change.

Question 45: What is the main cause of acid rain?

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Correct Answer: B. Burning of fossil fuels. This releases sulfur dioxide ($SO_2$) and nitrogen oxides ($NO_x$), which react with water in the atmosphere to form acid rain.

Question 46: What is the process of enriching a water body with nutrients, leading to excessive algal growth, called?

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Correct Answer: A. Eutrophication. This often results from fertilizer runoff and sewage discharge.

Question 47: Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

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Correct Answer: A. Methane. Methane ($CH_4$) is a potent greenhouse gas that traps heat in the atmosphere.

Question 48: What is the primary source of ozone layer depletion?

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Correct Answer: B. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs, previously used in refrigerants and aerosols, break down ozone ($O_3$) in the stratosphere.

Question 49: What is the process of removing salt from seawater called?

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Correct Answer: A. Desalination. This process makes seawater suitable for drinking and irrigation.

Question 50: Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

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Correct Answer: C. Food scraps. Biodegradable waste can be broken down naturally by microorganisms.

Question 51: What is the process by which plants convert sunlight into chemical energy?

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Correct Answer: A. Photosynthesis. Plants use chlorophyll to capture light energy and produce glucose.

Question 52: Which part of the plant is responsible for absorbing water and minerals from the soil?

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Correct Answer: C. Roots. Roots anchor the plant and absorb water and nutrients.

Question 53: What is the function of the xylem in plants?

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Correct Answer: A. To transport water and minerals from roots to leaves. The xylem is a vascular tissue responsible for this upward transport.

Question 54: Which of the following is NOT a type of plant tissue?

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Correct Answer: D. Muscle tissue. Muscle tissue is found in animals, not plants.

Question 55: What is the male reproductive part of a flower called?

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Correct Answer: B. Stamen. The stamen consists of the anther and filament and produces pollen.

Question 56: Which of the following is an example of a bryophyte?

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Correct Answer: B. Moss. Bryophytes are non-vascular plants that include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.

Question 57: Which of the following animals is an invertebrate?

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Correct Answer: D. Insect. Invertebrates lack a backbone.

Question 58: What is the function of the respiratory system in animals?

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Correct Answer: C. To exchange gases with the environment. The respiratory system takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

Question 59: Which of the following is a cold-blooded animal?

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Correct Answer: C. Reptile. Cold-blooded (poikilothermic or ectothermic) animals rely on external sources to regulate their body temperature. Amphibians are also typically considered cold-blooded.

Question 60: What is the process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in insects called?

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Correct Answer: A. Metamorphosis. This involves significant changes in the insect’s body structure.

Question 61: Which of the following is an example of a mammal?

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Correct Answer: C. Whale. Mammals are warm-blooded vertebrates characterized by hair, mammary glands, and breathing air.

Question 62: What is the function of the gills in fish?

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Correct Answer: A. To extract oxygen from water. Gills are specialized organs for gas exchange in aquatic environments.

Question 63: Which organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?

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Correct Answer: A. Heart. The heart is the central pump of the circulatory system.

Question 64: What is the function of the digestive system?

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Correct Answer: A. To break down food and absorb nutrients. The digestive system processes food into usable forms for the body.

Question 65: Which of the following is a component of the nervous system?

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Correct Answer: A. Brain. The brain is the central control organ of the nervous system.

Question 66: What is the function of white blood cells in the human body?

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Correct Answer: C. To fight infections. White blood cells (leukocytes) are a key part of the immune system.

Question 67: Which disease is caused by a deficiency of insulin?

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Correct Answer: A. Diabetes. Specifically, Type 1 diabetes is caused by the body’s inability to produce enough insulin, which regulates blood sugar.

Question 68: What is the main function of the kidneys?

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Correct Answer: A. To filter waste products from the blood. The kidneys remove waste materials and excess fluid, producing urine.

Question 69: What is the basic unit of heredity?

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Correct Answer: A. Gene. Genes are segments of DNA that carry the instructions for specific traits.

Question 70: Which molecule carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes?

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Correct Answer: A. mRNA. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic code transcribed from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Question 71: What is the process of creating a copy of DNA called?

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Correct Answer: A. Replication. DNA replication is the process by which a DNA molecule makes an identical copy of itself.

Question 72: Who is credited with the theory of evolution by natural selection?

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Correct Answer: A. Charles Darwin. Darwin proposed that species evolve over time through the mechanism of natural selection.

Question 73: What is the process by which organisms with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce?

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Correct Answer: A. Natural selection. This differential survival and reproduction based on advantageous traits is the core mechanism of evolution.

Question 74: What is a community of interacting organisms and their physical environment called?

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Correct Answer: A. Ecosystem. Ecosystems encompass all living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) components interacting in a specific area.

Question 75: What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?

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Correct Answer: B. To break down dead organisms and recycle nutrients. Decomposers like bacteria and fungi play a vital role in nutrient cycling.

Question 76: What is the variety of life in a particular habitat or ecosystem called?

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Correct Answer: A. Biodiversity. Biodiversity refers to the variety of species, genetic variation within species, and the diversity of ecosystems.

Question 77: Which of the following is a major threat to biodiversity?

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Correct Answer: A. Habitat loss. The destruction and fragmentation of natural habitats is a leading cause of species decline and biodiversity loss.

Question 78: What is the process by which certain pollutants become more concentrated as they move up the food chain?

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Correct Answer: A. Biomagnification. This process leads to higher concentrations of toxins in organisms at higher trophic levels.

Question 79: What is the field of science that deals with the manipulation of matter on an atomic and molecular scale?

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Correct Answer: A. Nanotechnology. Nanotechnology involves designing, producing, and applying structures, devices, and systems by controlling shape and size at the nanometer scale.

Question 80: Which of the following is an application of biotechnology?

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Correct Answer: A. Developing genetically modified crops. Biotechnology uses biological systems, living organisms, or derivatives thereof to make or modify products or processes for specific use.

Question 81: What is the technology that allows computers to perform tasks that normally require human intelligence?

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Correct Answer: A. Artificial intelligence (AI). AI involves creating computer systems that can perform tasks such as learning, problem-solving, and decision-making.

Question 82: Which of the following is a recent development in space technology?

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Correct Answer: A. Reusable rockets. Companies like SpaceX have pioneered reusable rocket technology to significantly lower the cost of space launches.

Question 83: What is the technology that connects everyday objects to the internet, allowing them to collect and exchange data?

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Correct Answer: A. Internet of Things (IoT). IoT refers to the network of physical objects embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies that enable them to connect and exchange data.

Question 84: Which of the following is an application of cloud computing?

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Correct Answer: A. Storing and accessing data over the internet. Cloud computing delivers computing services—including servers, storage, databases, networking, software—over the Internet.

Question 85: Which organization is responsible for India’s space program?

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Correct Answer: A. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation). ISRO is the primary agency for space exploration, satellite development, and launch vehicle technology in India.

Question 86: What was the name of India’s first satellite?

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Correct Answer: A. Aryabhata. Named after the ancient Indian mathematician, Aryabhata was launched by the Soviet Union in 1975.

Question 87: Which of the following is a major achievement of India’s space program?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. India has achieved significant milestones including lunar exploration (Chandrayaan), Mars orbiter mission (Mangalyaan), and developing reliable launch vehicles.

Question 88: Which organization is responsible for India’s nuclear program?

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Correct Answer: A. BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre). BARC, under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), is India’s premier nuclear research facility.

Question 89: What was the name of India’s first nuclear test?

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Correct Answer: A. Smiling Buddha. This was the code name for India’s first successful nuclear bomb test conducted on 18 May 1974 in Pokhran (Pokhran-I).

Question 90: Which of the following is a nuclear power plant in India?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. These are operational nuclear power plants contributing to India’s energy grid.

Question 91: What is the name of India’s indigenously developed ballistic missile?

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Correct Answer: A. Agni. The Agni series represents India’s medium to intercontinental range ballistic missiles developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).

Question 92: Which Indian scientist is known as the “Father of the Indian nuclear program”?

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Correct Answer: A. Homi J. Bhabha. Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha was the visionary architect of India’s nuclear energy program.

Question 93: Which of the following is a science and technology initiative in Bihar?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Bihar has initiated various measures including reviving Nalanda University (with international collaboration), formulating a biotechnology policy, and encouraging IT sector growth.

Question 94: What is the objective of the Bihar State Biotechnology Policy?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. The policy aims to leverage biotechnology for socio-economic development by fostering research, attracting investment, and generating employment.

Question 95: Which city in Bihar is known for its emerging IT sector?

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Correct Answer: A. Patna. Patna, the state capital, has seen the development of IT parks and is attracting IT companies.

Question 96: Which of the following is a science museum in Bihar?

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Correct Answer: C. Both A and B. Both the Shri Krishna Science Centre and the Indira Gandhi Science Complex (Planetarium) in Patna aim to promote science education and awareness.

Question 97: What is the focus of the Bihar Agricultural University, Sabour?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. The university is dedicated to advancing agriculture in the state through research, education, and extension activities.

Question 98: Which of the following is a traditional craft of Bihar that involves scientific principles?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. These crafts involve understanding materials (pigments, fibers, grass properties), processes (weaving techniques, dyeing), and sometimes chemical interactions.

Question 99: What is the role of the Bihar Council on Science and Technology?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. The council works towards integrating science and technology into the state’s development plans and promoting a scientific temper.

Question 100: Which of the following is a challenge for science and technology development in Bihar?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Bihar faces challenges related to infrastructure, funding, and retaining skilled manpower, which impact the pace of S&T development.

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