Evolution MCQ Class 12. MCQs for Class 12 Evolution: Test your knowledge on origin of life, Darwin’s theory, natural selection, and human evolution concepts.
Evolution MCQ Class 12 – Mock Online Test
Question 1: Approximately how old is the universe?
A. 4.5 billion years old
B. 10 billion years old
C. 20 billion years old
D. 100 billion years old
C. 20 billion years old. The universe is estimated to be around 20 billion years old.
Question 2: What is the name of the theory that explains the origin of the universe?
A. The Big Bang theory
B. The Panspermia theory
C. The Theory of Spontaneous Generation
D. The Theory of Special Creation
A. The Big Bang theory. The Big Bang theory attempts to explain the origin of the universe.
Question 3: Which of the following gases was NOT a major component of Earth’s early atmosphere?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Ammonia
A. Oxygen. There was no free oxygen in the early atmosphere.
Question 4: What process led to the formation of oceans on Earth?
A. The cooling of Earth’s molten surface
B. The accumulation of rain in depressions
C. The release of water vapor from volcanoes
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above processes contributed to the formation of oceans.
Question 5: When did life first appear on Earth after its formation?
A. 500 million years
B. 1 billion years
C. 2 billion years
D. 4 billion years
A. 500 million years. Life appeared 500 million years after Earth’s formation.
Question 6: What is the name of the theory that suggests life on Earth originated from outer space?
A. Panspermia
B. Biogenesis
C. Abiogenesis
D. Spontaneous generation
A. Panspermia. Panspermia is the theory that life came from outer space.
Question 7: Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ernst Haeckel
D. Karl Ernst von Baer
B. Louis Pasteur. Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of spontaneous generation.
Question 8: What did Oparin and Haldane propose about the first form of life?
A. It came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
B. It came from outer space.
C. It arose through spontaneous generation.
D. It was created by a supernatural being.
A. It came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
Question 9: What did the Miller-Urey experiment demonstrate?
A. Life could arise from non-living matter.
B. Organic molecules could be formed from inorganic molecules.
C. The early Earth’s atmosphere was rich in oxygen.
D. Panspermia was a viable theory.
B. Organic molecules could be formed from inorganic molecules. The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that organic molecules could be formed from inorganic molecules.
Question 10: What was the first non-cellular form of life?
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Giant molecules
D. Giant molecules. The first non-cellular forms of life were likely giant molecules.
Question 11: When did the first cellular form of life originate?
A. 3 billion years ago
B. 2 billion years ago
C. 1 billion years ago
D. 500 million years ago
B. 2 billion years ago. The first cellular form of life probably originated around 2 billion years ago.
Question 12: What is the widely accepted theory for the origin of life on Earth?
A. Spontaneous generation
B. Panspermia
C. Biogenesis
D. None of the above
C. Biogenesis. Biogenesis, the idea that life arose from non-living molecules through evolutionary forces, is widely accepted.
Question 13: What is the estimated age of the Earth?
A. 4.5 billion years
B. 20 billion years
C. 500 million years
D. 3 billion years
A. 4.5 billion years. Earth is estimated to be about 4.5 billion years old.
Question 14: What was the major source of water for the formation of oceans on Earth?
A. Rain
B. Volcanic eruptions
C. Melting glaciers
D. Extraterrestrial impacts
A. Rain. Rain filled the depressions on the early Earth to form oceans.
Question 15: What role did UV radiation play in the formation of Earth’s early atmosphere?
A. It broke down water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
B. It created organic molecules from inorganic matter.
C. It warmed the Earth’s surface.
D. It shielded the Earth from harmful radiation.
A. It broke down water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen. UV radiation broke down water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
Question 16: What is the significance of the Miller-Urey experiment in the study of the origin of life?
A. It simulated the conditions of early Earth to show how organic molecules could form.
B. It proved that life could arise from non-living matter.
C. It demonstrated the process of photosynthesis.
D. It confirmed the existence of extraterrestrial life.
A. It simulated the conditions of early Earth to show how organic molecules could form. The Miller-Urey experiment simulated the conditions of early Earth to show how organic molecules could form.
Question 17: What is the difference between cellular and non-cellular life forms?
A. Cellular life forms have a nucleus, while non-cellular life forms do not.
B. Cellular life forms are single-celled, while non-cellular life forms are multi-celled.
C. Cellular life forms have a membrane-bound structure, while non-cellular life forms do not.
D. Cellular life forms are capable of photosynthesis, while non-cellular life forms are not.
C. Cellular life forms have a membrane-bound structure, while non-cellular life forms do not. Cellular life forms have a membrane-bound structure, while non-cellular life forms do not.
Question 18: What is the significance of the presence of organic compounds in meteorites?
A. It supports the theory of panspermia.
B. It suggests that similar chemical processes are occurring elsewhere in space.
C. It proves that life exists on other planets.
D. It indicates that Earth’s early atmosphere was rich in oxygen.
B. It suggests that similar chemical processes are occurring elsewhere in space. The presence of organic compounds in meteorites suggests that similar chemical processes are occurring elsewhere in space.
Question 19: What does the theory of special creation suggest about the diversity of life?
A. It has evolved gradually over time.
B. It has remained the same since creation.
C. It is constantly changing.
D. It is determined by natural selection.
B. It has remained the same since creation. The theory of special creation suggests that the diversity of life has remained the same since creation.
Question 20: What was the name of the ship Charles Darwin sailed on around the world?
A. HMS Beagle
B. HMS Victory
C. HMS Endeavour
D. HMS Challenger
A. HMS Beagle. Charles Darwin sailed on the HMS Beagle.
Question 21: What did Darwin’s observations during his voyage lead him to conclude about existing living forms?
A. They share similarities to varying degrees.
B. They are all unique and unrelated.
C. They were all created at the same time.
D. They do not change over time.
A. They share similarities to varying degrees. Darwin concluded that existing living forms share similarities to varying degrees.
Question 22: What is the meaning of reproductive fitness in the context of natural selection?
A. The ability to survive in any environment
B. The ability to attract a mate
C. The ability to produce fertile offspring
D. The ability to adapt to changing conditions
C. The ability to produce fertile offspring. Reproductive fitness refers to the ability to produce fertile offspring.
Question 23: Who, besides Charles Darwin, is credited with independently conceiving the theory of natural selection?
A. Alfred Wallace
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ernst Haeckel
D. Gregor Mendel
A. Alfred Wallace. Alfred Wallace also independently conceived the theory of natural selection.
Question 24: What did Darwin propose about the age of the Earth?
A. It is about 4,000 years old.
B. It is millions of years old.
C. It is billions of years ol
D. D. Its age is unknown.
C. It is billions of years old. Darwin proposed that the Earth is billions of years old.
Question 25: What is natural selection?
A. The process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits
B. The process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce
C. The process by which organisms change over time due to random mutations
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments
B. The process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce. Natural selection is the process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce.
Question 26: What is the relationship between natural selection and evolution?
A. Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution.
B. Evolution is a mechanism of natural selection.
C. Natural selection and evolution are unrelated concepts.
D. Natural selection and evolution are the same thing.
A. Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution. Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution.
Question 27: What is the main idea behind gradual evolution?
A. Evolution happens in large jumps.
B. Evolution happens slowly over time.
C. Evolution is a random process.
D. Evolution is driven by mutations.
B. Evolution happens slowly over time. Gradual evolution proposes that evolution happens slowly over time.
Question 28: What is a common ancestor?
A. An organism that is the direct ancestor of all living organisms
B. An organism from which two or more different species evolved
C. An organism that has not evolved over time
D. An organism that is found in all fossil records
B. An organism from which two or more different species evolved. A common ancestor is an organism from which two or more different species evolved.
Question 29: What is the relationship between the geological history of Earth and the biological history of Earth?
A. They are closely correlated.
B. They are unrelated.
C. The geological history is much longer than the biological history.
D. The biological history is much longer than the geological history.
A. They are closely correlated. The geological history of Earth is closely correlated with the biological history of Earth.
Question 30: What was the main challenge to the theory of special creation during the nineteenth century?
A. The discovery of fossils
B. The development of the theory of natural selection
C. The observation of variations within species
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above challenged the theory of special creation.
Question 31: What did Darwin’s observations of variations within populations suggest about evolution?
A. Variations are irrelevant to evolution.
B. Variations are the raw material for natural selection.
C. Variations always lead to new species.
D. Variations are caused by environmental changes.
B. Variations are the raw material for natural selection. Darwin suggested that variations within populations are the raw material for natural selection.
Question 32: What is the significance of extinctions in evolutionary history?
A. Extinctions show that evolution is a random process.
B. Extinctions provide opportunities for new life forms to arise.
C. Extinctions demonstrate the failure of natural selection.
D. Extinctions are unrelated to evolution.
B. Extinctions provide opportunities for new life forms to arise. Extinctions provide opportunities for new life forms to arise.
Question 33: What is the role of environmental conditions in natural selection?
A. Environmental conditions have no effect on natural selection.
B. Environmental conditions determine which traits are favorable.
C. Environmental conditions cause mutations.
D. Environmental conditions prevent evolution.
B. Environmental conditions determine which traits are favorable. Environmental conditions determine which traits are favorable in natural selection.
Question 34: What is the ultimate measure of fitness according to Darwin?
A. Physical strength
B. Intelligence
C. Reproductive success
D. Lifespan
C. Reproductive success. Reproductive success is the ultimate measure of fitness according to Darwin.
Question 35: What are fossils?
A. Living organisms preserved in amber
B. Remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks
C. Footprints of ancient animals
D. Frozen remains of extinct organisms
B. Remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks. Fossils are the remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
Question 36: What does the arrangement of sediments in Earth’s crust indicate?
A. The age of the Earth
B. The history of volcanic eruptions
C. The arrangement of sediments one over the other during the long history of Earth
D. The distribution of fossils
C. The arrangement of sediments one over the other during the long history of Earth. A cross-section of Earth’s crust indicates the arrangement of sediments one over the other during the long history of Earth.
Question 37: What is paleontological evidence?
A. Evidence from the study of fossils
B. Evidence from the study of embryos
C. Evidence from the study of DNA
D. Evidence from the study of rocks
A. Evidence from the study of fossils. Paleontological evidence refers to the evidence from the study of fossils.
Question 38: What is the method used to calculate the ages of fossils?
A. Carbon dating
B. Radioactive dating
C. Sedimentary analysis
D. Morphological comparison
B. Radioactive dating. Radioactive dating is used to calculate the ages of fossils.
Question 39: Who proposed embryological support for evolution?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Ernst Haeckel
C. Karl Ernst von Baer
D. Alfred Wallace
B. Ernst Haeckel. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by Ernst Haeckel.
Question 40: Why was Haeckel’s proposal of embryological support for evolution disapproved?
A. Embryos do not show similarities.
B. Embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals.
C. Embryological development is too diverse.
D. Embryological development is not related to evolution.
B. Embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals. Karl Ernst von Baer disapproved Haeckel’s proposal because embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals.
Question 41: What is comparative anatomy and morphology?
A. The study of the structure of organisms
B. The study of the function of organisms
C. The study of the development of organisms
D. The study of the behavior of organisms
A. The study of the structure of organisms. Comparative anatomy and morphology studies the similarities and differences among organisms of today and those that existed years ago.
Question 42: What are homologous structures?
A. Structures that have similar functions but different anatomical structures
B. Structures that have different functions but similar anatomical structures
C. Structures that are found in unrelated organisms
D. Structures that have disappeared over time
B. Structures that have different functions but similar anatomical structures. Homologous structures have different functions but similar anatomical structures.
Question 43: What are analogous structures?
A. Structures that have similar functions but different anatomical structures
B. Structures that have different functions but similar anatomical structures
C. Structures that are found in closely related organisms
D. Structures that have remained unchanged over time
A. Structures that have similar functions but different anatomical structures. Analogous structures have similar functions but different anatomical structures.
Question 44: What is the significance of similarities in proteins and genes among diverse organisms?
A. It suggests convergent evolution.
B. It provides clues to common ancestry.
C. It indicates adaptation to similar environments.
D. It demonstrates the randomness of evolution.
B. It provides clues to common ancestry. Similarities in proteins and genes among diverse organisms provide clues to common ancestry.
Question 45: What is artificial selection?
A. The process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits
B. The process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce
C. The process by which organisms change over time due to random mutations
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments
A. The process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits. Artificial selection is the process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits.
Question 46: What is industrial melanism?
A. The darkening of organisms in response to industrial pollution
B. The increase in the number of dark-colored moths during industrialization
C. The adaptation of moths to camouflage against polluted tree trunks
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Industrial melanism refers to all of the above phenomena.
Question 47: What is the significance of the peppered moth case in evolutionary studies?
A. It shows how natural selection can lead to rapid evolutionary changes.
B. It demonstrates the impact of human activities on evolution.
C. It provides evidence for the concept of adaptation.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The peppered moth case is significant for all of the above reasons.
Question 48: What is evolution by anthropogenic action?
A. Evolution caused by natural disasters
B. Evolution caused by climate change
C. Evolution caused by human activities
D. Evolution caused by random mutations
C. Evolution caused by human activities. Evolution by anthropogenic action refers to evolution caused by human activities.
Question 49: What is the nature of evolution?
A. Deterministic
B. Stochastic
C. Predictable
D. Goal-oriented
B. Stochastic. Evolution is a stochastic process, meaning it is based on chance events and mutations.
Question 50: What does the study of fossils indicate about life forms on Earth?
A. They have remained unchanged over time.
B. They have varied over time and are sometimes restricted to certain geological time-spans.
C. They all existed simultaneously.
D. They show no clear pattern of change.
B. They have varied over time and are sometimes restricted to certain geological time-spans. The study of fossils shows that life forms have varied over time and that certain life forms are restricted to certain geological time-spans.
Question 51: What is the significance of the discovery of the Coelacanth in 1938?
A. It proved that dinosaurs still exist.
B. It provided evidence for the theory of spontaneous generation.
C. It was thought to be extinct, but its discovery provided evidence for the evolutionary history of amphibians.
D. It demonstrated the process of convergent evolution.
C. It was thought to be extinct, but its discovery provided evidence for the evolutionary history of amphibians. The Coelacanth was thought to be extinct, but its discovery provided evidence for the evolutionary history of amphibians.
Question 52: What is the key feature that distinguishes mammals from reptiles?
A. They lay eggs.
B. They are cold-blooded.
C. They have scales.
D. They are viviparous.
D. They are viviparous. Mammals are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young.
Question 53: What is the most widely accepted explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs?
A. A catastrophic volcanic eruption
B. An asteroid impact
C. A combination of factors including climatic changes
D. The evolution of dinosaurs into birds
C. A combination of factors including climatic changes. While an asteroid impact is a prominent theory, the truth about dinosaur extinction might be a combination of factors, including climatic changes.
Question 54: What is the significance of the brain capacities of early hominids like Homo habilis?
A. It shows a trend of increasing brain size in hominid evolution.
B. It proves that Homo habilis was a direct ancestor of modern humans.
C. It suggests that Homo habilis had complex language skills.
D. It indicates that Homo habilis was a herbivore.
A. It shows a trend of increasing brain size in hominid evolution. The brain capacity of Homo habilis, between 650-800cc, supports the trend of increasing brain size observed in hominid evolution.
Question 55: What can be inferred from the observation that resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or years, and not centuries?
A. Evolution is a slow and gradual process.
B. Evolution can be accelerated by human activities like excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics.
C. Natural selection is not a significant factor in the development of resistance.
D. Resistant organisms existed previously, and their population has increased due to the excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics.
B. Evolution can be accelerated by human activities like excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics. Evolution can be accelerated by human activities like excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics.
Question 56: What is the most significant factor in the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
A. The overuse of antibiotics.
B. The ability of bacteria to mutate rapidly.
C. The transfer of genetic material between bacteria.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above factors contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
Question 57: What is adaptive radiation?
A. The evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography (habitats)
B. The adaptation of an organism to its environment
C. The process by which organisms become extinct
D. The movement of organisms from one place to another
A. The evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography (habitats). Adaptive radiation is the evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography (habitats).
Question 58: What is the significance of Darwin’s finches in evolutionary biology?
A. They provide evidence for the theory of special creation.
B. They are an example of homologous structures.
C. They represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation.
D. They demonstrate the process of convergent evolution.
C. They represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation. Darwin’s finches represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation.
Question 59: What is another example of adaptive radiation besides Darwin’s finches?
A. The Australian marsupials
B. The peppered moths
C. The Galapagos tortoises
D. The dinosaurs
A. The Australian marsupials. The Australian marsupials are another example of adaptive radiation.
Question 60: What is convergent evolution?
A. When two or more species evolve similar traits in response to similar environments
B. When two or more species evolve different traits in response to different environments
C. When two or more species share a common ancestor
D. When two or more species become extinct
A. When two or more species evolve similar traits in response to similar environments. Convergent evolution is when two or more species evolve similar traits in response to similar environments.
Question 61: What is the relationship between adaptive radiation and convergent evolution?
A. Adaptive radiation is a type of convergent evolution.
B. Convergent evolution is a type of adaptive radiation.
C. Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution are unrelated concepts.
D. Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution are the same thing.
B. Convergent evolution is a type of adaptive radiation. Convergent evolution is a type of adaptive radiation that occurs when more than one adaptive radiation appears to have occurred in an isolated geographical area.
Question 62: What is the best example of convergent evolution in the context of adaptive radiation?
A. Darwin’s finches
B. Australian marsupials and placental mammals
C. The peppered moths
D. The dinosaurs
B. Australian marsupials and placental mammals. Australian marsupials and placental mammals are the best example of convergent evolution in the context of adaptive radiation.
Question 63: What is the significance of the fact that the marsupials of Australia are each different from the other?
A. It suggests that they evolved from different ancestors.
B. It indicates that they have undergone convergent evolution.
C. It shows that they have evolved in response to different environments.
D. It demonstrates the diversity of life on Earth.
C. It shows that they have evolved in response to different environments. The fact that the marsupials of Australia are each different from the other shows that they have evolved in response to different environments.
Question 64: What is the relationship between the placental mammals of Australia and the marsupials of Australia?
A. They are closely related.
B. They have evolved similar traits in response to similar environments.
C. They have evolved different traits in response to different environments.
D. They share a common ancestor.
B. They have evolved similar traits in response to similar environments. The placental mammals of Australia and the marsupials of Australia have evolved similar traits in response to similar environments.
Question 65: What is the significance of the term ‘radiating’ in the definition of adaptive radiation?
A. It refers to the process of radioactive decay.
B. It indicates that the species are spreading out from a central point.
C. It suggests that the species are becoming more diverse.
D. It implies that the species are evolving rapidly.
B. It indicates that the species are spreading out from a central point. The term ‘radiating’ indicates that the species are spreading out from a central point.
Question 66: What is the main factor that drives adaptive radiation?
A. The availability of resources
B. The presence of predators
C. The occurrence of mutations
D. The isolation of populations
A. The availability of resources. The availability of different resources drives the evolution of different species in adaptive radiation.
Question 67: When did the first cellular forms of life appear on Earth?
A. 4 billion years ago
B. 3 billion years ago
C. 2 billion years ago
D. 1 billion years ago
C. 2 billion years ago. The first cellular forms of life appeared on Earth about 2 billion years ago.
Question 68: What is the key process that drives biological evolution?
A. Natural selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow
A. Natural selection. Natural selection is the key process that drives biological evolution.
Question 69: What is the importance of heritable characteristics in evolution?
A. They allow organisms to adapt to their environment.
B. They are the basis for natural selection.
C. They can be passed on to offspring.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Heritable characteristics are important for all of the above reasons.
Question 70: What is the genetic basis of evolution?
A. Mutations
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic drift
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above factors contribute to the genetic basis of evolution.
Question 71: What are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution?
A. Gradual evolution and common ancestors
B. Branching descent and natural selection
C. Mutation and gene flow
D. Genetic drift and adaptation
B. Branching descent and natural selection. The two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution are branching descent and natural selection.
Question 72: Who proposed the theory of evolution driven by use and disuse of organs?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
C. Alfred Wallace
D. Gregor Mendel
B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. Lamarck proposed the theory of evolution driven by use and disuse of organs.
Question 73: Why is Lamarck’s theory of evolution no longer accepted?
A. Acquired characteristics cannot be inherited.
B. Evolution is not driven by the use and disuse of organs.
C. There is no evidence to support Lamarck’s theory.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Lamarck’s theory is no longer accepted for all of the above reasons.
Question 74: What is the relationship between evolution and natural selection?
A. Evolution is a process, and natural selection is the result of that process.
B. Natural selection is a process, and evolution is the result of that process.
C. Evolution and natural selection are the same thing.
D. Evolution and natural selection are unrelated concepts.
B. Natural selection is a process, and evolution is the result of that process. Natural selection is a process, and evolution is the result of that process.
Question 75: What is the role of natural selection in evolution?
A. Natural selection causes mutations.
B. Natural selection determines which traits are favorable.
C. Natural selection drives gene flow.
D. Natural selection prevents evolution.
B. Natural selection determines which traits are favorable. Natural selection determines which traits are favorable and allows organisms with those traits to survive and reproduce.
Question 76: What is the significance of the fact that natural resources are limited?
A. It leads to competition for resources.
B. It drives natural selection.
C. It limits population size.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The fact that natural resources are limited is significant for all of the above reasons.
Question 77: What is the role of variation in natural selection?
A. Variation has no effect on natural selection.
B. Variation provides the raw material for natural selection.
C. Variation always leads to new species.
D. Variation is caused by environmental changes.
B. Variation provides the raw material for natural selection. Variation provides the raw material for natural selection.
Question 78: What is the outcome of natural selection?
A. The appearance of new forms
B. The extinction of species
C. The adaptation of organisms to their environment
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above are potential outcomes of natural selection.
Question 79: What is the main idea behind branching descent?
A. All living organisms share a common ancestor.
B. Evolution is a linear process.
C. Evolution is driven by mutations.
D. Natural selection is the only mechanism of evolution.
A. All living organisms share a common ancestor. Branching descent proposes that all living organisms share a common ancestor.
Question 80: What is the primary source of variation in a population?
A. Natural selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow
B. Mutation. Mutations are the primary source of variation in a population.
Question 81: What is speciation?
A. The process by which new species arise
B. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment
C. The process by which organisms become extinct
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments
A. The process by which new species arise. Speciation is the process by which new species arise.
Question 82: What is the difference between Darwinian variations and mutations?
A. Darwinian variations are small and directional, while mutations are random and directionless.
B. Darwinian variations are random and directionless, while mutations are small and directional.
C. Darwinian variations and mutations are the same thing.
D. Darwinian variations and mutations are unrelated concepts.
A. Darwinian variations are small and directional, while mutations are random and directionless. Darwinian variations are small and directional, while mutations are random and directionless.
Question 83: What is saltation?
A. The gradual process of evolution
B. The process of adaptation to new environments
C. The process of speciation caused by mutations
D. The process of extinction
C. The process of speciation caused by mutations. Saltation is the process of speciation caused by mutations.
Question 84: What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. A principle that describes the factors that can cause evolution
B. A principle that explains how natural selection works
C. A principle that states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation
D. A principle that describes the process of speciation
C. A principle that states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation.
Question 85: What is genetic equilibrium?
A. The state in which allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant
B. The state in which a population is evolving
C. The state in which a population is undergoing natural selection
D. The state in which a population is experiencing gene flow
A. The state in which allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant. Genetic equilibrium is the state in which allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant.
Question 86: What is the sum total of all allelic frequencies in a population?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. It depends on the population.
C. 1. The sum total of all allelic frequencies in a population is 1.
Question 87: What does it mean if the frequency of alleles in a population differs from the expected values based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. The population is in genetic equilibrium.
B. The population is evolving.
C. The population is not experiencing any mutations.
D. The population is not undergoing natural selection.
B. The population is evolving. If the frequency of alleles in a population differs from the expected values, it indicates that the population is evolving.
Question 88: What are the factors that can affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. Gene migration or gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Mutation
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All of the above factors can affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Question 89: What is gene flow?
A. The movement of genes from one population to another
B. The random change in allele frequencies in a population
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment
A. The movement of genes from one population to another. Gene flow is the movement of genes from one population to another.
Question 90: What is genetic drift?
A. The movement of genes from one population to another
B. The random change in allele frequencies in a population
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment
B. The random change in allele frequencies in a population. Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies in a population.
Question 91: What is the founder effect?
A. The change in allele frequencies due to the migration of a small group of individuals from a larger population
B. The change in allele frequencies due to random events
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment
A. The change in allele frequencies due to the migration of a small group of individuals from a larger population. The founder effect is the change in allele frequencies due to the migration of a small group of individuals from a larger population.
Question 92: What were the first forms of life on Earth?
A. Single-celled
B. Multicellular
C. Plants
D. Animals
A. Single-celled. The first forms of life on Earth were single-celled.
Question 93: What was the major event that led to the evolution of aerobic respiration?
A. The evolution of photosynthesis
B. The formation of the ozone layer
C. The increase in oxygen levels in the atmosphere
D. The appearance of multicellular organisms
A. The evolution of photosynthesis. The evolution of photosynthesis led to the evolution of aerobic respiration.
Question 94: What is the significance of the evolution of photosynthesis?
A. It led to the increase in oxygen levels in the atmosphere.
B. It allowed for the evolution of aerobic respiration.
C. It made the evolution of complex life forms possible.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The evolution of photosynthesis is significant for all of the above reasons.
Question 95: What are the two early primates that are considered to be the ancestors of humans?
A. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
B. Australopithecus and Homo habilis
C. Homo erectus and Homo sapiens
D. Neanderthals and Denisovans
A. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus are considered to be the ancestors of humans.
Question 96: What is the estimated age of Dryopithecus?
A. 15 million years ago
B. 10 million years ago
C. 5 million years ago
D. 1 million years ago
A. 15 million years ago. Dryopithecus is estimated to have lived about 15 million years ago.
Question 97: What is the significance of the discovery of Ramapithecus fossils?
A. They provide evidence for the evolution of humans from apes.
B. They show that Ramapithecus was a direct ancestor of modern humans.
C. They suggest that Ramapithecus was more man-like than Dryopithecus.
D. They indicate that Ramapithecus was a herbivore.
C. They suggest that Ramapithecus was more man-like than Dryopithecus. The discovery of Ramapithecus fossils suggests that it was more man-like than Dryopithecus.
Question 98: What are hominids?
A. The ancestors of humans
B. The descendants of humans
C. The relatives of humans
D. The extinct species of humans
A. The ancestors of humans. Hominids are the ancestors of humans.
Question 99: What is the significance of the increasing brain capacity in hominid evolution?
A. It shows that hominids were becoming more intelligent.
B. It suggests that hominids were developing language skills.
C. It indicates that hominids were adapting to changing environments.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The increasing brain capacity in hominid evolution is significant for all of the above reasons.
Question 100: What is the scientific name for modern humans?
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo erectus
C. Homo sapiens
D. Homo neanderthalensis
C. Homo sapiens. The scientific name for modern humans is Homo sapiens.