Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024 & other Competitive Exams | 100 MCQs

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Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024 & other Competitive Exams | 100 MCQs. Enhance your preparation with this comprehensive quiz covering key events and topics from June 2nd and 3rd, 2024. Stay updated and test your knowledge for UPSC and other competitive exams.

Table of Contents

Day in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

Telangana Formation Day: 2 June

1. Telangana Formation Day is celebrated on which date every year?

(a) June 1st

(b) June 2nd 3rd

(c) June 3rd

(d) June 4th

Answer
  Answer: (b) June 2nd 3rd. Telangana was officially formed as the 29th state of India on June 2nd 3rd, 2014. 

2. Telangana was carved out of which state?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer
  Answer: (c) Andhra Pradesh. Telangana was part of Andhra Pradesh before it became a separate state. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

3.Telangana officially became the 29th state of India on:

(a) June 2, 2013

(b) June 2, 2014

(c) June 2, 2015

(d) June 2, 2016
 

Answer
  Answer: (b) Telangana was officially formed as the 29th state of India on June 2nd 3rd, 2014. 
 

World Bicycle Day 2024 – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

4. World Bicycle Day is celebrated on ____ .

(a) June 1st

(b) June 2nd 3rd

(c) June 3rd

(d) June 4th

Answer
  Answer: (c) June 3rd. World Bicycle Day is celebrated annually on June 3rd to promote the use of bicycles as a sustainable and healthy mode of transportation. 

5. The idea of World Bicycle Day was proposed by ____.

(a) Leszek Sibilski

(b) John Kemp Starley

(c) Pierre Lallement

(d) Baron Karl von Drais

Answer
  Answer: (a) Leszek Sibilski. The idea was proposed by Leszek Sibilski, a Polish-American social scientist. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

6. World Bicycle Day was first celebrated in ____.

(a) 2016

(b) 2017

(c) 2018

(d) 2019

Answer
  Answer: (c) 2018. The United Nations General Assembly declared June 3rd as World Bicycle Day in April 2018. 

Global Day of Parents 2024 – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

8. Global Day of Parents is observed on ___.

(a) May 15th

(b) June 1st

(c) July 26th

(d) November 20th

Answer
  Answer: (b) June 1st. Global Day of Parents is observed annually on June 1st to appreciate parents and their commitment to children worldwide. 

9. Global Day of Parents was proclaimed by ___.

(a) UNICEF

(b) UNESCO

(c) United Nations General Assembly

(d) World Health Organization

Answer
  Answer: (c) United Nations General Assembly. The General Assembly proclaimed June 1st as Global Day of Parents in 2012. 

10. The theme for Global Day of Parents 2024 was ___.

(a) The Importance of Family

(b) Honoring Parenthood

(c) The Promise of Playful Parenting

(d) Investing in Our Future

Answer
  Answer: (c) The Promise of Playful Parenting. The theme for 2024 focused on the importance of playful parenting in a child’s development. 

International Sex Workers’ Day 2024 – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

11. International Sex Workers’ Day is observed on which day ?

(a) May 3rd

(b) June 2nd 3rd

(c) July 4th

(d) September 28th

Answer
  Answer: (b) June 2nd 3rd. This day is dedicated to raising awareness about the challenges and exploitation faced by sex workers worldwide. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

12. How was the first International Sex Workers’ Day marked?

(a) A protest at the White House

(b) A march in London

(c) An occupation of a church in France

(d) A conference in Geneva

Answer
  Answer: (c) An occupation of a church in France. In 1975, approximately 100 sex workers occupied the Saint-Nizier Church in Lyon, France, to protest their working conditions. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

13. International Sex Workers’ Day aims to raise awareness about ?

(a) The legalization of sex work

(b) The health and safety of sex workers

(c) The stigma and discrimination faced by sex workers

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The day focuses on advocating for the rights, health, safety, and de-stigmatization of sex workers. 

Banking & Finance in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

UPI Transactions Hit Record High: 14.04 Billion in May 2024, 49% YoY Growth – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

14. In May 2024, UPI processed a record-breaking number of transactions. What was the approximate number?

(a) 10 billion

(b) 12 billion

(c) 14 billion

(d) 16 billion

Answer
  Answer: (c) 14 billion. UPI processed 14.04 billion transactions in May 2024, a significant increase from the previous year. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

15. Compared to May 2023, what was the approximate year-on-year growth in UPI transactions in May 2024?

(a) 29%

(b) 39%

(c) 49%

(d) 59%

Answer
  Answer: (c) 49%. UPI transactions in May 2024 saw a 49% increase compared to the same month in the previous year. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

16. Which organization released the data on UPI’s record-breaking transactions?

(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)

Answer
  Answer: (b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). NPCI is the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, including UPI. 

17. What is the full form of UPI?

(a) Unified Payments Interface

(b) United Payment Index

(c) Universal Payment Interface

(d) Union Payment Index

Answer
  Answer: (a) Unified Payments Interface. UPI is a real-time payment system that allows for instant transfer of funds between two bank accounts on a mobile platform. 

Axis Bank and Mastercard Launch NFC Soundbox for Easy Payments – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

18. Which two companies collaborated to introduce the NFC Soundbox?

(a) Axis Bank and Visa

(b) HDFC Bank and Mastercard

(c) Axis Bank and Mastercard

(d) ICICI Bank and Visa

Answer
  Answer: (c) Axis Bank and Mastercard. The two companies partnered to launch the NFC Soundbox, a new payment acceptance solution. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

19. What technology does the NFC Soundbox utilize?

(a) Bluetooth

(b) Wi-Fi

(c) Near Field Communication (NFC)

(d) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

Answer
  Answer: (c) Near Field Communication (NFC). The Soundbox uses NFC technology for contactless payments. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

20. What is the primary function of the NFC Soundbox?

(a) To play music for customers

(b) To provide real-time transaction alerts to merchants

(c) To dispense cash

(d) To print receipts

Answer
  Answer: (b) To provide real-time transaction alerts to merchants. The Soundbox is designed to provide instant audio confirmation of successful payments to merchants. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

21. Which type of merchants is the NFC Soundbox primarily targeted towards?

(a) Large retail stores

(b) E-commerce platforms

(c) Small and medium-sized businesses

(d) Government offices

Answer
  Answer: (c) Small and medium-sized businesses. The NFC Soundbox is aimed at helping smaller merchants accept digital payments more easily. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

22.Which key feature of the NFC Soundbox sets it apart from other payment solutions in India?

(a) Accepts payments in multiple currencies

(b) Supports international transactions

(c) Offers cashback rewards on every transaction

(d) Enables Tap and PIN transactions over ₹5000

Answer
  Answer: (d) Enables Tap and PIN transactions over ₹5000. This feature is significant as it allows merchants to accept higher value card payments that were previously limited due to security concerns. 

RBI Cancels 10-Year Green Bond Auction: First-Ever Cancellation in India’s Financial History – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

23. What type of bond auction did the Reserve Bank of India cancel for the first time?

(a) 5-year government bond

(b) 10-year government bond

(c) 10-year green bond

(d) 5-year green bond

Answer
  Answer: (c) 10-year green bond. The RBI cancelled the auction for the first time due to lackluster demand. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

24. Why are green bonds issued?

(a) To finance environmentally friendly projects

(b) To fund infrastructure development

(c) To support social welfare programs

(d) To reduce the fiscal deficit

Answer
  Answer: (a) To finance environmentally friendly projects. Green bonds are specifically designed to raise funds for projects that have positive environmental or climate benefits. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

25. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the lackluster demand for the green bond auction?

(a) Higher yields on other government bonds

(b) Concerns about the environmental impact of the projects

(c) Lack of awareness among investors

(d) Limited availability of green projects

Answer
  Answer: (b) Concerns about the environmental impact of the projects. While the environmental impact of projects is a crucial factor in green bond investments, it was not the primary reason for the low demand in this case. 

RBI Transfers 100 Tonnes of Gold from UK to India Vaults – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

26. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) moved 100 tonnes of gold from the UK to its vaults in India. Where was the gold stored before being moved to India?

(a) Bank of England

(b) Federal Reserve Bank of New York

(c) Bank for International Settlements

(d) Swiss National Bank

Answer
  Answer: (a) Bank of England. The RBI held a portion of its gold reserves in the Bank of England’s vaults, which were then transferred to India. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

27. Approximately how much of India’s gold reserves were stored abroad before this transfer?

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 75%

(d) 100%

Answer
  Answer: (b) 50%. Roughly half of India’s gold reserves were held overseas before the RBI’s decision to repatriate a significant portion. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

28. What was the primary reason for the RBI to move the gold back to India?

(a) Political instability in the UK

(b) Concerns about the safety of the gold in the UK

(c) To reduce storage costs and diversify storage locations

(d) To boost the Indian economy

Answer
  Answer: (c) To reduce storage costs and diversify storage locations. The move was primarily driven by logistical and cost considerations, along with a desire to diversify the storage of the country’s gold reserves. 
Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024 & other Competitive Exams | 100 MCQs

29. What is the significance of this gold repatriation for India?

(a) It marks a historic shift in India’s gold storage strategy.

(b) It demonstrates India’s growing economic strength.

(c) It reduces India’s dependence on foreign institutions for gold storage.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The repatriation of gold holds symbolic, economic, and strategic significance for India, reflecting a change in its approach to managing its gold reserves. 

“Space” in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

ISRO and Wipro 3D Team Up to Revolutionize Space with 3D-Printed Rocket Engine

30. Which Indian organization collaborated with Wipro 3D to develop a 3D-printed rocket engine?

(a) DRDO

(b) ISRO

(c) BARC

(d) HAL

Answer
  Answer: (b) ISRO. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) partnered with Wipro 3D for this innovative project. 

31. What is the primary advantage of 3D-printed rocket engines?

(a) Increased fuel efficiency

(b) Reduced manufacturing time and cost

(c) Enhanced thrust

(d) Improved safety

Answer
  Answer: (b) Reduced manufacturing time and cost. 3D printing technology allows for faster and more cost-effective production of complex rocket engine components. 

32. Which material was used to 3D print the rocket engine?

(a) Titanium

(b) Aluminum

(c) Stainless steel

(d) Inconel

Answer
  Answer: (a) Titanium. Titanium is known for its strength, high-temperature resistance, and lightweight properties, making it suitable for rocket engine applications. 

33. What type of rocket engine was 3D printed in this collaboration?

(a) Liquid propellant engine

(b) Solid propellant engine

(c) Hybrid engine

(d) Electric propulsion engine

Answer
  Answer: (a) Liquid propellant engine. This type of engine uses liquid propellants, typically fuel and oxidizer, to generate thrust. 

34. What is the potential impact of this development on India’s space program?

(a) It could accelerate the development of new launch vehicles.

(b) It could reduce the cost of launching satellites.

(c) It could enable more frequent space missions.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The successful development of 3D-printed rocket engines has the potential to revolutionize India’s space capabilities in various ways. 

35. Which company provided the 3D printing expertise for this project?

(a) Wipro Limited

(b) Wipro Enterprises

(c) Wipro 3D

(d) Wipro Technologies

Answer
  Answer: (c) Wipro 3D. This subsidiary of Wipro Limited specializes in 3D printing and additive manufacturing solutions. 

Chinese Spacecraft Makes Historic Landing on Moon’s Far Side to Collect Samples – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

36. Which country’s spacecraft successfully landed on the far side of the moon to collect samples?

(a) United States

(b) Russia

(c) China

(d) India

Answer
  Answer: (c) China. The Chinese spacecraft Chang’e-5 mission achieved this historic landing on the far side of the moon. 

37. What was the primary objective of this lunar mission?

(a) To establish a permanent lunar base

(b) To search for signs of extraterrestrial life

(c) To collect lunar soil and rock samples

(d) To test new space technologies

Answer
  Answer: (c) To collect lunar soil and rock samples. The Chang’e-5 mission aimed to retrieve lunar samples for scientific analysis. 

38. Approximately how much lunar material did the spacecraft collect?

(a) 100 grams

(b) 500 grams

(c) 2 kilograms

(d) 5 kilograms

Answer
  Answer: (c) 2 kilograms. The mission successfully collected around 2 kilograms of lunar material. 

39. What is the significance of collecting samples from the far side of the moon?

(a) It provides insights into the moon’s geological history and evolution.

(b) It could help scientists understand the early solar system.

(c) It may reveal the presence of valuable resources on the moon.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. Studying the lunar samples from the far side can provide valuable information about the moon’s history, the solar system’s formation, and potential resources. 

40. After collecting the samples, what did the spacecraft do?

(a) Returned directly to Earth

(b) Docked with a lunar orbiter

(c) Landed on the near side of the moon

(d) Remained on the far side of the moon

Answer
  Answer: (b) Docked with a lunar orbiter. The ascent module carrying the samples docked with an orbiter in lunar orbit before returning to Earth. 

NASA and ESA Collaborate to Create a Universal Lunar Time System – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

41. Which two space agencies collaborated to develop a standardized lunar time system?

(a) NASA and Roscosmos

(b) NASA and JAXA

(c) NASA and ESA

(d) ESA and CNSA

Answer
  Answer: (c) NASA and ESA. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the European Space Agency (ESA) worked together on this project. 

42. What is the primary purpose of establishing a lunar time system?

(a) To synchronize clocks on Earth with lunar time

(b) To facilitate communication between spacecraft on and around the moon

(c) To track the movement of the moon in space

(d) To study the effects of lunar gravity on time

Answer
  Answer: (b) To facilitate communication between spacecraft on and around the moon. A standardized time system is essential for coordinating missions and ensuring smooth communication between various spacecraft operating near the moon. 

43. Which existing time system is the lunar time system likely to be based on?

(a) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)

(b) Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)

(c) International Atomic Time (TAI)

(d) Terrestrial Time (TT)

Answer
  Answer: (a) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC). UTC is the primary time standard used for most timekeeping purposes on Earth and is likely to be the basis for lunar time. 

44. What challenges are associated with establishing a lunar time system?

(a) The moon’s irregular orbit and rotation

(b) The effect of the moon’s gravity on time

(c) The lack of a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) around the moon

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. These challenges need to be addressed to create a reliable and accurate time system for the moon. 

“Business” in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

Adani Ports Secures 30-Year Contract to Boost Global Presence with Tanzania Port Terminal

45. Which Indian company recently secured a 30-year concession agreement to operate Container Terminal 2 (CT2) at Dar es Salaam Port in Tanzania?

(a) Reliance Industries

(b) Tata Group

(c) Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone (APSEZ)

(d) Essar Group

Answer
  Answer: (c) Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone (APSEZ). This agreement marks APSEZ’s third international port venture and strengthens its global presence. 

46. What is the significance of this deal for Adani Ports and the Indian economy?

(a) It establishes India as a major player in the global maritime industry.

(b) It opens up new trade routes and opportunities for Indian businesses.

(c) It strengthens economic ties between India and Tanzania.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The deal has significant implications for Adani Ports’ global expansion strategy, India’s growing influence in the maritime sector, and the potential for enhanced trade and economic cooperation between India and Tanzania. 

Jio Financial Services Unveils ‘JioFinance’ App Beta to Revolutionize Digital Banking – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

47. Which company launched the ‘JioFinance’ app in beta mode to expand its presence in the digital banking sector?

(a) Jio Platforms

(b) Reliance Industries

(c) Jio Financial Services

(d) Reliance Jio

Answer
  Answer: (c) Jio Financial Services. This new venture by Jio aims to leverage technology to provide innovative financial solutions to its customers. 

48. What are the expected benefits of the JioFinance app for users?

(a) Simplified financial transactions

(b) Access to a wide range of financial products and services

(c) Enhanced user experience through digital platforms

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The JioFinance app is expected to offer a comprehensive suite of financial services, simplify transactions, and provide a user-friendly digital interface, ultimately enhancing the overall banking experience for its users. 

“Defence” in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

Red Flag 2024 Exercise

49.In which multinational air exercise did the Indian Air Force participate in 2024, deploying its Rafale fighter jets? 

(a) Cope India 

(b) Red Flag 

(c) Pitch Black 

(d) Garuda Shield

Answer
  Answer: (b) Red Flag. The Red Flag exercise is a premier air-to-air combat training exercise hosted by the United States Air Force. 

50.Which major naval exercise did the Indian Navy participate in 2024, marking its third participation in the event? 

(a) Malabar 

(b) RIMPAC 

(c) Sea Breeze

(d) Komodo

Answer
  Answer: (b) RIMPAC. RIMPAC is the world’s largest international maritime exercise, hosted by the United States Navy. 

51.Where was the Red Flag exercise held in 2024? 

(a) Nevada, USA 

(b) Alaska, USA 

(c) California, USA 

(d) Hawaii, USA

Answer
  Answer: (b) Alaska, USA. The 2024 edition of Red Flag took place at Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska. 

52.What is the significance of India’s participation in these multinational war games? 

(a) Enhances interoperability with partner nations 

(b) Provides exposure to advanced tactics and technologies 

(c) Strengthens military-to-military cooperation 

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. Participating in such exercises allows India to learn from and cooperate with other nations, enhancing its own military capabilities. 

“Science & Technology” in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024.

Fern’s Genome: 50 Times Bigger Than Human’s – Nature’s Genomic Marvel

53.Which plant species was recently discovered to have a genome 50 times larger than a human’s? 

(a) Giant Sequoia 

(b) Rafflesia arnoldii (Corpse flower) 

(c) Amorphophallus titanum (Titan arum) 

(d) Ceratopteris richardii (C-fern)

Answer
  Answer: (d) Ceratopteris richardii (C-fern). This fern species holds the record for the largest known genome in a living organism. 

54.Approximately how many base pairs does the C-fern’s genome contain?

(a) 150 billion

(b) 750 billion

(c) 1.5 trillion

(d) 7.5 trillion

Answer
  Answer: (a) 150 billion. The C-fern’s genome is massive, containing roughly 150 billion base pairs. 

55.What is the significance of this discovery for scientists?

(a) It challenges the notion that complex organisms always have larger genomes.

(b) It provides insights into the evolution of plant genomes.

(c) It opens up new avenues for studying plant genetics and biology.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. This discovery has broad implications for our understanding of genome size, evolution, and plant biology. 

56.What potential applications does this research have?

(a) Developing new crops with improved traits

(b) Understanding the genetic basis of plant diseases

(c) Designing more effective plant breeding programs

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. This research could have significant implications for agriculture, medicine, and environmental science. 

57.What challenges does the C-fern’s large genome pose for researchers?

(a) Difficulty in sequencing and assembling the genome

(b) Challenges in analyzing and interpreting the genetic data

(c) Limited computational resources for handling such large datasets

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The sheer size of the C-fern genome presents technical and computational challenges for researchers. 

Study Unveils Swift Evolution of Y Chromosome in Apes – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

58. A recent study found rapid evolution in the Y chromosome of which group of animals?

(a) Birds

(b) Reptiles

(c) Apes

(d) Fish

Answer
  Answer: (c) Apes. The study focused on the evolution of the Y chromosome in apes, including humans. 

59. What is the Y chromosome responsible for?

(a) Female sex determination

(b) Male sex determination

(c) Eye color

(d) Hair color

Answer
  Answer: (b) Male sex determination. The Y chromosome is the sex chromosome that determines male development in many species, including apes. 

60. What did the study reveal about the evolution of the Y chromosome in apes?

(a) It has remained relatively stable over time

(b) It has evolved at a slower rate than other chromosomes

(c) It has undergone rapid changes and rearrangements

(d) It has disappeared in some ape species

Answer
  Answer: (c) It has undergone rapid changes and rearrangements. The study found significant differences in the Y chromosome structure and gene content among ape species. 

61. What is the significance of this finding for understanding human evolution?

(a) It provides insights into the unique characteristics of the human Y chromosome.

(b) It sheds light on the evolutionary history of sex chromosomes in primates.

(c) It may help explain differences in reproductive traits among ape species.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The study contributes to our understanding of human evolution by revealing the dynamic nature of the Y chromosome and its role in shaping reproductive traits. 

62. What are the potential implications of this research for human health?

(a) It could lead to new treatments for male infertility.

(b) It could help identify genetic risk factors for certain diseases.

(c) It could contribute to the development of personalized medicine for men.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. Understanding the evolution and function of the Y chromosome has potential applications in various areas of human health research. 

Global Organ Transplant Strategy approved by World Health Assembly – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

63. Which international organization approved a global strategy on organ donation and transplantation in 2024?

(a) United Nations

(b) World Health Organization

(c) World Medical Association

(d) International Red Cross

Answer
  Answer: (b) World Health Organization. The World Health Assembly, the decision-making body of the WHO, adopted the global strategy. 

64. What is the main goal of this global strategy?

(a) To increase the availability of organs for transplantation

(b) To improve the quality and safety of organ transplants

(c) To promote ethical practices in organ donation and transplantation

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The strategy aims to address the global shortage of organs, enhance transplant outcomes, and ensure ethical practices. 

65. What are some of the key elements of this strategy?

(a) Strengthening health systems and infrastructure

(b) Increasing public awareness and education

(c) Enhancing data collection and monitoring

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The strategy outlines a comprehensive approach involving various measures to improve organ donation and transplantation globally. 

66. What is the expected impact of this global strategy on the field of organ transplantation?

(a) It will save millions of lives worldwide.

(b) It will reduce the waiting time for organ transplants.

(c) It will promote equitable access to organ transplantation.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The implementation of this strategy is expected to have a significant positive impact on the availability, safety, and equity of organ transplantation. 

OpenAI Launches ChatGPT Edu: Empowering Universities with Cutting-Edge AI Technology – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

67. What is the name of the new platform launched by OpenAI specifically for universities?

(a) ChatGPT Plus

(b) ChatGPT Enterprise

(c) ChatGPT Edu

(d) ChatGPT Academic

Answer
  Answer: (c) ChatGPT Edu. This platform is designed to cater to the specific needs of universities and educational institutions. 

68. What are the key features of ChatGPT Edu that differentiate it from other ChatGPT versions?

(a) Access to advanced research tools

(b) Integration with learning management systems (LMS)

(c) Customized content generation for educational purposes

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. ChatGPT Edu offers features tailored for educational settings, including integration with LMS, specialized content creation, and research tools. 

69. What benefits does ChatGPT Edu offer to universities and students?

(a) Enhances student engagement and learning outcomes

(b) Facilitates personalized learning experiences

(c) Streamlines administrative tasks for educators

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. ChatGPT Edu has the potential to revolutionize education by providing a powerful AI tool to both students and educators. 

70. How does ChatGPT Edu address concerns regarding academic integrity and plagiarism?

(a) It includes plagiarism detection features.

(b) It provides guidelines for ethical AI use in education.

(c) It encourages critical thinking and original work.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. OpenAI is actively working on measures to ensure ChatGPT Edu is used responsibly in academic settings, promoting originality and academic integrity. 

Economy in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

May 2024 GST Revenue Hits ₹1.73 Trillion, 10% YoY Surge

71. What was the gross GST revenue collection in May 2024?

(a) ₹1.53 lakh crore

(b) ₹1.63 lakh crore

(c) ₹1.73 lakh crore

(d) ₹1.83 lakh crore

Answer
  Answer: (c) ₹1.73 lakh crore. This marked a 10% increase compared to May 2023, primarily driven by a rise in domestic transactions. 

72. What was the main reason for the growth in GST collection in May 2024?

(a) Increase in international trade

(b) Rise in domestic transactions

(c) Increased tax rates

(d) Government stimulus packages

Answer
  Answer: (b) Rise in domestic transactions. While imports slowed down, the significant growth in domestic transactions was the key driver behind the increase in GST collection. 

India’s FY24 Fiscal Deficit  – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

73. What is the fiscal deficit of India for FY24?

(a) The total amount of taxes collected by the government

(b) The total amount of money spent by the government

(c) The difference between the government’s total expenditure and total revenue

(d) The total amount of money borrowed by the government

Answer
  Answer: (c) The difference between the government’s total expenditure and total revenue. Fiscal deficit is a key indicator of a country’s financial health, and the government aims to keep it under control. 

74. What is the significance of India’s fiscal deficit for FY24?

(a) It reflects the government’s ability to manage its finances.

(b) It impacts the country’s economic stability and growth.

(c) It affects the interest rates and inflation in the economy.

(d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The fiscal deficit is a crucial economic indicator with wide-ranging implications for the government’s financial management, economic stability, and overall growth prospects. 

Indian Economy Surges: 8.2% Growth in FY24 – NSO – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

75. What was the growth rate of the Indian economy in FY24 according to the National Statistical Office (NSO)?

(a) 6.8%

(b) 7.2%

(c) 7.8%

(d) 8.2%

Answer
  Answer: (d) 8.2%. This marked a significant rebound from the previous year, indicating a strong recovery of the Indian economy. 

76. Which sector contributed the most to India’s economic growth in FY24?

(a) Agriculture

(b) Manufacturing

(c) Services

(d) Construction

Answer
  Answer: (c) Services. The services sector, including IT, finance, and tourism, continued to be the major driver of India’s economic growth in FY24. 

Awards & Recognitions in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

NIMHANS Receives Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion

77. Which Indian institution was awarded the prestigious Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion in 2024?

    (a) AIIMS Delhi

    (b) PGI Chandigarh

    (c) NIMHANS

    (d) CMC Vellore

Answer
  Answer: (c) NIMHANS. The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS) received this award for its outstanding contributions to mental health promotion and advocacy. 

78. In which specific area did NIMHANS make significant contributions to receive the award?

    (a) Cancer research

    (b) Cardiovascular health

    (c) Mental health promotion

    (d) Infectious disease control

Answer
  Answer: (c) Mental health promotion. NIMHANS has been a pioneer in raising awareness, reducing stigma, and advocating for policies related to mental health in India. 

79. Who presents the Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion?

    (a) World Health Organization (WHO)

    (b) United Nations (UN)

    (c) World Bank

    (d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Answer
  Answer: (a) World Health Organization (WHO). This award is given by WHO to recognize outstanding achievements in the field of health promotion. 

Indian-American Wins Scripps Spelling Bee – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

80. Who won the Scripps National Spelling Bee in 2024?

    (a) Harini Logan

    (b) Zaila Avant-garde

    (c) Bruhat Soma

    (d) Nihar Janga

Answer
  Answer: (c) Bruhat Soma. He became the champion of the prestigious spelling competition in 2024. 

81. What is the nationality of the winner of the 2024 Scripps National Spelling Bee?

    (a) Indian

    (b) American

    (c) Indian-American

    (d) British

Answer
  Answer: (c) Indian-American. Bruhat Soma is an Indian-American, highlighting the achievements of the Indian diaspora in the United States. 

82. Which word did Bruhat Soma correctly spell to win the competition?

    (a) Psychagogic

    (b) Bouillabaisse

    (c) abseil

    (d) Elucubrate

Answer
  Answer:  (c) abseil. His championship word was abseil, which is defined as descent in mountaineering by means of a rope looped over a projection above 

India in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024 at global platform

India Hosts 46th Antarctic Treaty Meeting in Kerala

83. In which city of Kerala did India host the 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM) and the 26th Committee on Environmental Protection (CEP) in 2024?

(a) Thiruvananthapuram

(b) Kochi

(c) Kozhikode

(d) Thrissur

Answer
  Answer: (b) Kochi. The meetings were held in Kochi, Kerala, from May 20th to 30th, 2024. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

84. What was the theme of the 46th ATCM?

(a) “One Earth, One Family, One Future” (Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam)

(b) “Protecting Antarctica’s Pristine Environment”

(c) “Science for a Sustainable Antarctica”

(d) “Antarctica: A Continent for Peace and Science”

Answer
  Answer: (a) “One Earth, One Family, One Future” (Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam). This Sanskrit phrase reflects the global interconnectedness and the need for collective action to address environmental challenges. 

85. Which Indian ministry organized the ATCM and CEP meetings?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(b) Ministry of External Affairs

(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(d) Ministry of Science and Technology

Answer
  Answer: (c) Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Ministry of Earth Sciences, through the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), was responsible for organizing the meetings. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

86. What significant announcement did India make during the ATCM meeting?

(a) Establishment of a new Indian research station in Antarctica

(b) Ban on all tourism activities in Antarctica

(c) Increase in India’s financial contribution to Antarctic research

(d) Launch of a new satellite to monitor Antarctic ice melt

Answer
  Answer: (a) Establishment of a new Indian research station in Antarctica. The announcement highlighted India’s commitment to scientific research and exploration in Antarctica. 

State in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024 

Kerala Introduces Artificial Intelligence Learning in School Textbooks

87. Which Indian state is pioneering the integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) learning into school textbooks?

    (a) Karnataka

    (b) Maharashtra

    (c) Kerala

    (d) Tamil Nadu

Answer
  Answer: (c) Kerala. This initiative aims to introduce students to the fundamentals of AI at an early age. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

88. What is the primary goal of including AI in school textbooks?

    (a) To prepare students for future job opportunities in the technology sector.

    (b) To foster critical thinking and problem-solving skills.

    (c) To equip students with a basic understanding of AI concepts and applications.

    (d) All of the above.

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The introduction of AI in school textbooks aims to achieve a multifaceted goal of preparing students for the future, enhancing their cognitive abilities, and fostering a basic understanding of AI. 

89. Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of teaching AI in schools?

    (a) Encouraging innovation and creativity.

    (b) Developing computational thinking skills.

    (c) Replacing human teachers with AI tutors.

    (d) Promoting digital literacy.

Answer
  Answer: (c) Replacing human teachers with AI tutors. While AI can supplement teaching, it is not intended to replace the crucial role of human educators in fostering holistic development. 

Sports in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

Badminton Star PV Sindhu Appointed Brand Ambassador for Tobacco Control

90. Which Indian badminton player has been appointed as the brand ambassador for Tobacco Control in India?

    (a) Saina Nehwal

    (b) Kidambi Srikanth

    (c) PV Sindhu

    (d) Lakshya Sen

Answer
  Answer: (c) PV Sindhu.  The Indian badminton champion PV Sindhu has been appointed to promote awareness about the harmful effects of tobacco and encourage people to lead a tobacco-free life. 

91. What is the main aim of appointing PV Sindhu as the brand ambassador for Tobacco Control?

    (a) To encourage young people to take up badminton

    (b) To promote healthy lifestyle choices among youth

    (c) To raise awareness about the dangers of tobacco use

    (d) To improve India’s performance in international badminton tournaments

Answer
  Answer: (c) To raise awareness about the dangers of tobacco use. PV Sindhu’s popularity and influence are expected to inspire and motivate people, especially the youth, to avoid tobacco. 

92. On which occasion was PV Sindhu appointed as the brand ambassador for Tobacco Control?

    (a) National Sports Day

    (b) World Health Day

    (c) World No Tobacco Day

    (d) International Yoga Day

Answer
  Answer: (c) World No Tobacco Day. The announcement was made on World No Tobacco Day, which is observed on May 31st each year to highlight the health risks associated with tobacco use. 

– Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

93. Which organization is responsible for appointing PV Sindhu as the brand ambassador for Tobacco Control?

    (a) Sports Authority of India (SAI)

    (b) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

    (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

    (d) Indian Olympic Association (IOA)

Answer
  Answer: (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is leading the national tobacco control program and is responsible for appointing brand ambassadors to raise awareness. 

Scheme/Law in news – Daily Current Affairs Quiz for UPSC 2nd 3rd June 2024

Supreme Court Reconstitutes Gender Sensitisation Committee

94. Which Indian institution recently reconstituted its Gender Sensitisation and Internal Complaints Committee?

(a) The High Court of Delhi

(b) The National Commission for Women

(c) The Supreme Court of India

(d) The Ministry of Women and Child Development

Answer
  Answer: (c) The Supreme Court of India. This move is aimed at ensuring a safe and respectful workplace for women within the judiciary. 

95. Who will chair the reconstituted Gender Sensitisation and Internal Complaints Committee?

(a) Justice B.V. Nagarathna

(b) Justice Hima Kohli

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Solicitor General of India

Answer
  Answer: (b) Justice Hima Kohli. She has been reappointed as the chairperson of the committee, highlighting the court’s commitment to addressing gender-related issues. 

96. How many members are there in the reconstituted committee?

(a) 8

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 15

Answer
  Answer: (c) 12. The committee comprises 12 members, including judges, lawyers, and experts from various fields. 

97. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Gender Sensitisation and Internal Complaints Committee?

(a) To create awareness about gender equality

(b) To address complaints of sexual harassment

(c) To review and revise policies related to gender sensitization

(d) To adjudicate criminal cases related to sexual harassment

Answer
  Answer: (d) To adjudicate criminal cases related to sexual harassment. The committee’s role is primarily focused on prevention, awareness, and redressal of complaints within the institution, not on criminal prosecution. 

98. The reconstitution of the committee is based on which regulation?

(a) The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013

(b) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005

(c) The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

(d) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976

Answer
  Answer: (a) The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013. This act mandates the formation of such committees in workplaces to address issues of sexual harassment. 

99. What is the significance of the reconstitution of this committee?

(a) It highlights the judiciary’s commitment to gender equality and safe workplaces.

(b) It sends a strong message against sexual harassment within the judiciary.

(c) It strengthens the mechanism for redressal of complaints related to sexual harassment.

(d) All of the above

Answer
  Answer: (d) All of the above. The reconstitution of the committee underscores the Supreme Court’s dedication to fostering a gender-sensitive and inclusive environment for all. 

100. The committee’s term will be for a period of:

(a) One year

(b) Two years

(c) Three years

(d) Five years

Answer
  Answer: (c) Three years. The reconstituted committee will serve for a three-year term, allowing for consistent efforts towards gender sensitization and redressal of complaints. 

Read Also:Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024 | Best 100 Questions

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