Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024 | Best 100 Questions

“Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024” covers a diverse range of topics, including World Milk Day 2024 and significant government regulations such as changes to retirement and death gratuity limits. In banking and finance, it highlights the RBI Annual Report 2023-24, new guidelines for fintech SROs, and the launch of India’s first electric vehicle stock index, the Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index.

It also explores scientific discoveries like Venus’s volcanic activity and Agnikul Cosmos’ Agnibaan, the first private launch with a 3D-printed rocket engine. Key appointments and resignations, such as the new Director General of the World Organisation for Animal Health, and defense news featuring the ‘Red Flag 24’ Air Force exercise are included. The article also discusses technological advancements like India’s first quantum diamond microchip imager, government initiatives like PRAGATI-2024, economic insights from Morgan Stanley’s 2024 Global Economic Midyear Outlook, and recognitions such as the TIME100 Most Influential Companies 2024. Additionally, it highlights India’s role in the Colombo Process and the first successful pig liver transplant.

Table of Contents

1.Day in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

World Milk Day 2024

1. When is World Milk Day celebrated?

   a) May 1st

   b) June 1st

   c) July 1st

   d) August 1st

Answer
    Answer: b) June 1st  

2. Which organization established World Milk Day?

   a) World Health Organization (WHO)

   b) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)

   c) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

   d) World Trade Organization (WTO)

Answer
    Answer: c) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)  

3. What is the main purpose of World Milk Day?

   a) To promote the consumption of dairy alternatives

   b) To raise awareness about lactose intolerance

   c) To celebrate the dairy sector and highlight the importance of milk as a global food

   d) To encourage people to reduce their dairy intake

Answer
    Answer: c) To celebrate the dairy sector and highlight the importance of milk as a global food  

4. What is the theme of World Milk Day 2024?

   a) “Raise a Glass to Milk”

   b) “Milk: The Sustainable Choice”

   c) “Celebrating Dairy’s Nutritional Power”

   d) “Enjoy Dairy Responsibly”

Answer
    Answer: c) “Celebrating Dairy’s Nutritional Power  

5. Which country has the highest per capita consumption of milk?

   a) India

   b) United States

   c) Finland

   d) China

Answer
    Answer: c) Finland  

6. Which of the following is NOT a key nutrient found in milk?

   a) Calcium

   b) Vitamin D

   c) Vitamin C

   d) Protein

Answer
    Answer: c) Vitamin C  

2.Government Regulation in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

Government Changes Retirement & Death Gratuity Limits

7.By how much has the Indian government increased the maximum limit for retirement and death gratuity for central government employees? 

a) ₹2 lakh 

b) ₹3 lakh 

c) ₹4 lakh 

d) ₹5 lakh 

Answer
    Answer: d) ₹5 lakh. The Indian government raised the maximum limit for gratuity from ₹20 lakh to ₹25 lakh, a ₹5 lakh increase, for central government employees effective January 1, 2024.  

3.Banking & Finance in News – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

RBI Annual Report 2023-24

8. According to the RBI Annual Report 2023-24, what was the real GDP growth rate in India for the fiscal year?

   a) 6.5%

   b) 7.0%

   c) 7.6%

   d) 8.2%

Answer
    Answer: c) 7.6%. The report highlights that the real GDP growth accelerated to 7.6% in 2023-24 from 7.0% in the previous year.  

9. Which sector witnessed the highest growth in Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) during 2023-24, as per the RBI Annual Report?

   a) Agriculture

   b) Manufacturing

   c) Services

   d) Government

Answer
    Answer: d) Government. The report emphasises that government spending on infrastructure drove the acceleration of GFCF to 10.2%.  

10. What was the average headline inflation rate in India for 2023-24, according to the RBI Annual Report?

    a) 4.5%

    b) 5.4%

    c) 6.0%

    d) 6.5%

Answer
    Answer: b) 5.4%. The report indicates that inflationary pressures moderated, with headline inflation softening to 5.4%.  

11. What was the policy repo rate maintained by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) throughout 2023-24, as per the RBI Annual Report?

    a) 6.00%

    b) 6.25%

    c) 6.50%

    d) 6.75%

Answer
    Answer: c) 6.50%. The report states that the MPC kept the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50% throughout the year.  

12. What was the gross fiscal deficit (GFD) as a percentage of GDP in India for 2023-24, according to the RBI Annual Report?

    a) 4.9%

    b) 5.9%

    c) 6.4%

    d) 6.9%

Answer
    Answer: b) 5.9%. The report indicates that the central government achieved fiscal consolidation commitments, with the GFD declining to 5.9% of GDP from 6.4% in the previous year.  

13. Which of the following statements about India’s external sector performance in 2023-24 is NOT true, as per the RBI Annual Report?

    a) Merchandise exports fell by 3.1%.

    b) Imports fell by 5.7%.

    c) The current account deficit (CAD) widened significantly.

    d) The CAD moderated to 1.2% of GDP during April-December 2023.

Answer
    Answer: c) The current account deficit (CAD) widened significantly. This statement is incorrect. The report states that the CAD moderated to 1.2% of GDP during April-December 2023 from 2.6% a year ago.  

14. What was the total value of banknotes in circulation in India at the end of 2023-24, as per the RBI Annual Report?

    a) ₹30.3 lakh crore

    b) ₹35.3 lakh crore

    c) ₹40.3 lakh crore

    d) ₹45.3 lakh crore

Answer
    Answer: b) ₹35.3 lakh crore. The report highlights the significant increase in the value of banknotes in circulation, reflecting the growing demand for cash.  

15. According to the RBI Annual Report, what percentage of retail electronic transactions were conducted through the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) in 2023-24?

    a) 50%

    b) 60%

    c) 70%

    d) 80%

Answer
    Answer: d) 80%. The report emphasizes the dominance of UPI in retail electronic payments, accounting for 80% of such transactions.  

16. What was the gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) at the end of March 2024, as per the RBI Annual Report?

    a) 3.9%

    b) 4.5%

    c) 5.1%

    d) 5.8%

Answer
    Answer: a) 3.9%. The report indicates a decline in the GNPA ratio of SCBs to a six-year low of 3.9%.  

17. According to the RBI Annual Report, what was the total amount of foreign exchange reserves held by India at the end of March 2024?

    a) USD 550 billion

    b) USD 600 billion

    c) USD 650 billion

    d) USD 700 billion

Answer
    Answer: c) USD 650 billion. The report mentions a substantial increase in foreign exchange reserves, reaching USD 650 billion.  

18. What was the credit growth to the micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSME) sector in 2023-24, as per the RBI Annual Report?

    a) 10%

    b) 15%

    c) 20%

    d) 25%

Answer
    Answer: c) 20%. The report highlights robust credit growth to the MSME sector, with a 20% increase in outstanding credit.  

19. According to the RBI Annual Report, what was the share of renewable energy in India’s total installed electricity capacity at the end of March 2024?

    a) 30%

    b) 35%

    c) 40%

    d) 45%

Answer
    Answer: c) 40%. The report mentions that the share of renewable energy in India’s total installed electricity capacity reached 40%.  

20. What is the largest component of the RBI’s assets, as per the balance sheet in the Annual Report 2023-24?

    a) Gold

    b) Foreign currency assets

    c) Domestic government securities

    d) Loans and advances

Answer
    Answer: b) Foreign currency assets. Foreign currency assets typically constitute the largest share of the RBI’s assets.  

21. Which of the following is NOT a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet?

    a) Notes issued

    b) Deposits of banks

    c) Government of India deposits

    d) Gold

Answer
    Answer: d) Gold. Gold is an asset on the RBI’s balance sheet, not a liability.  

22. What is the main component of the RBI’s capital and reserves?

    a) Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA)

    b) Contingency Fund

    c) Asset Development Fund

    d) Investment Revaluation Account (IRA)

Answer
    Answer: a) Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA). The CGRA is the most significant component of the RBI’s capital and reserves.  

23. The RBI’s net income, as shown in the Annual Report 2023-24, is transferred to:

    a) The Government of India

    b) Contingency Fund

    c) Asset Development Fund

    d) All of the above

Answer
    Answer: a) The Government of India. The RBI’s net income, after making necessary provisions, is transferred to the central government.  

24. In the RBI Annual Report 2023-24, what does the term ‘notes issued’ represent on the liabilities side of the balance sheet?

    a) Government bonds held by the RBI

    b) Currency notes in circulation

    c) Deposits held by commercial banks at the RBI

    d) Foreign exchange reserves held by the RBI

Answer
    Answer: b) Currency notes in circulation. ‘Notes issued’ represents the total value of currency notes that the RBI has put into circulation in the economy.  

25. What is the primary source of income for the RBI, as reflected in the Annual Report 2023-24?

    a) Interest earned on government securities

    b) Interest earned on foreign currency assets

    c) Profits from open market operations

    d) Fees and commissions

Answer
    Answer: a) Interest earned on government securities. The RBI holds a significant amount of government securities, and the interest earned on these securities constitutes a major source of its income.  

RBI Guidelines for Fintech SRO

26. What is the primary objective of the RBI’s 2024 guidelines for Fintech Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs)?

   a) To promote competition among fintech companies

   b) To encourage self-regulation in the fintech sector

   c) To restrict the growth of the fintech sector

   d) To impose stricter regulations on fintech companies

Answer
    Answer: b) To encourage self-regulation in the fintech sector. The RBI guidelines aim to establish a framework for SROs to oversee and regulate fintech activities, promoting responsible innovation and consumer protection.  

27. According to the RBI guidelines, which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement for a fintech SRO?

   a) Having a diversified shareholding

   b) Having a minimum net worth of ₹20 million within one year of recognition

   c) Representing fintech entities of all sizes and stages

   d) Having a majority of board members from the banking sector

Answer
    Answer: d) Having a majority of board members from the banking sector. While the board should possess professional competence and a reputation for fairness, there’s no requirement for a majority from the banking sector.  

28. Which of the following activities can a fintech SRO undertake, as per the RBI guidelines?

   a) Setting up entities or offices overseas without prior RBI approval

   b) Creating a mechanism for accreditation in the fintech ecosystem

   c) Directly regulating payment and settlement systems

   d) Determining the pricing of fintech products and services

Answer
    Answer: b) Creating a mechanism for accreditation in the fintech ecosystem. The guidelines allow SROs to establish accreditation mechanisms to enhance compliance and foster professionalism, subject to RBI approval.  

29. The RBI guidelines mandate that the membership of a fintech SRO should primarily consist of:

    a) Fintechs currently regulated by other financial sector regulators

    b) Fintechs that are not currently regulated by any financial sector regulator

    c) Only large fintech companies

    d) Only early-stage fintech startups

Answer
    Answer: b) Fintechs that are not currently regulated by any financial sector regulator. This is to ensure that the SRO focuses on the specific needs of this segment and complements existing regulatory frameworks.  

30. Which of the following is NOT a function of a fintech SRO as outlined in the RBI guidelines?

    a) Framing baseline standards and codes of conduct

    b) Monitoring and enforcing compliance with regulations

    c) Resolving disputes between fintech entities and customers

    d) Setting interest rates for lending products offered by fintech companies

Answer
    Answer: d) Setting interest rates for lending products offered by fintech companies. While SROs can frame rules and codes, setting interest rates falls under the purview of individual companies and market forces.  

Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index Launched: India’s First Electric Vehicle Stock Index

31. What is the name of India’s first Electric Vehicle (EV) index launched by NSE Indices Limited?

   a) Nifty Auto Index

   b) Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index

   c) Nifty Energy Index

   d) Nifty Green Mobility Index

Answer
    Answer: b) Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index. This is the official name of the first EV index in India, designed to track the performance of companies involved in the EV ecosystem.  

32. What is the base date and base value of the Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index?

    a) January 1, 2023, and 1,000

    b) April 2, 2018, and 1,000

    c) July 1, 2020, and 500

    d) October 1, 2022, and 1,500

Answer
    Answer: b) April 2, 2018, and 1,000. The index’s performance is measured relative to this base date and value.  

33. Which of the following types of companies are included in the Nifty EV & New Age Automotive Index?

   a) Only electric vehicle manufacturers

   b) Only companies involved in the production of electric vehicle batteries

   c) EV manufacturers, new age automotive vehicles, electric batteries, EV component producers, and companies producing raw materials for EVs or autonomous vehicle technology

   d) Only companies involved in autonomous vehicle technology

Answer
    Answer: c) EV manufacturers, new age automotive vehicles, electric batteries, EV component producers, and companies producing raw materials for EVs or autonomous vehicle technology. The index includes a wide range of companies involved in the EV ecosystem to provide a comprehensive representation of the sector.  

4.Science & Space in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

Venus Volcanic Activity Discovered: NASA’s Magellan Mission Reveals Ongoing Eruptions

34. Which NASA mission provided the data that revealed ongoing volcanic activity on Venus?

    a) Cassini

    b) Juno

    c) Voyager

    d) Magellan

Answer
    Answer: d) Magellan. NASA’s Magellan spacecraft, which orbited Venus in the early 1990s, collected the radar images that scientists recently analyzed to discover the volcanic activity.  

35. What type of evidence did the Magellan mission provide to support the discovery of ongoing volcanic activity?

    a) Seismic data showing ground vibrations

    b) Thermal imaging revealing heat signatures

    c) Radar images showing changes in volcanic vents and lava flows

    d) Spectroscopic analysis of gases in the atmosphere

Answer
    Answer: c) Radar images showing changes in volcanic vents and lava flows. Scientists compared Magellan’s radar images taken at different times and observed changes in the shape and size of volcanic vents, indicating eruptions and lava flows.  

36. Which volcano on Venus showed the most prominent signs of recent activity in the Magellan data?

    a) Maat Mons

    b) Sif Mons

    c) Gula Mons

    d) Sapas Mons

Answer
    Answer: a) Maat Mons. This volcano was the focus of the initial discovery, with changes in a vent indicating an eruption that occurred while Magellan was in orbit.  

37. How did scientists determine that the volcanic activity on Venus was recent?

    a) By analyzing the chemical composition of the lava

    b) By comparing the images taken by Magellan at different times during its mission

    c) By using radiometric dating techniques

    d) By observing the presence of volcanic ash in the atmosphere

Answer
    Answer: b) By comparing the images taken by Magellan at different times during its mission. The changes in the volcanic vents and lava flows were observed by comparing images taken months apart, indicating recent geological activity.  

38. Why is the discovery of ongoing volcanic activity on Venus significant?

    a) It suggests that Venus is a more geologically active planet than previously thought.

    b) It could provide clues about the planet’s interior and evolution.

    c) It could help scientists better understand volcanic processes on other planets, including Earth.

    d) All of the above

Answer
    Answer: d) All of the above. This discovery has significant implications for our understanding of Venus and planetary volcanism in general.  

39. What upcoming NASA mission is expected to further investigate the volcanic activity on Venus?

    a) VERITAS

    b) DAVINCI

    c) Psyche

    d) Lucy

Answer
    Answer: a) VERITAS. The VERITAS (Venus Emissivity, Radio Science, InSAR, Topography, and Spectroscopy) mission is designed to study Venus’s surface and interior, including its volcanic activity, in detail.  

Agnikul Cosmos’ Agnibaan: India’s First Private Launch with World’s First 3D-Printed Rocket Engine

40. What is the name of the Chennai-based startup that developed Agnibaan?

    a) Skyroot Aerospace

    b) Pixxel

    c) Bellatrix Aerospace

    d) Agnikul Cosmos

Answer
    Answer: d) Agnikul Cosmos. Agnikul Cosmos is the startup responsible for the development and launch of Agnibaan.  

41. Which of the following is a unique feature of the Agnibaan rocket engine?

    a) It uses solid fuel.

    b) It’s the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed engine.

    c) It’s designed for deep space missions.

    d) It’s reusable.

Answer
    Answer: b) It’s the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed engine. This is a groundbreaking innovation in rocket engine manufacturing.  

42. What type of engine powers the Agnibaan rocket?

    a) Cryogenic engine

    b) Solid-fuel engine

    c) Semi-cryogenic engine

    d) Ion engine

Answer
    Answer: c) Semi-cryogenic engine. Agnibaan is powered by India’s first semi-cryogenic engine, a significant technological achievement.  

43. What is the maximum payload capacity of Agnibaan to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?

    a) 100 kg

    b) 200 kg

    c) 300 kg

    d) 400 kg

Answer
    Answer: c) 300 kg. Agnibaan can carry a payload of up to 300 kg to LEO, making it suitable for small satellite launches.  

44. From which launchpad was Agnibaan launched?

    a) Satish Dhawan Space Centre

    b) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

    c) Dhanush Launchpad

    d) Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station

Answer
    Answer: c) Dhanush Launchpad. Agnikul Cosmos developed and launched Agnibaan from their privately owned launchpad called Dhanush, located at Sriharikota.  

45. Which of the following statements about Agnibaan is FALSE?

    a) It’s a two-stage rocket.

    b) It uses liquid oxygen and kerosene as fuel.

    c) It was successfully launched on its first attempt.

    d) It’s designed to be customizable for different mission requirements.

Answer
    Answer: c) It was successfully launched on its first attempt. Agnibaan was successfully launched on its fifth attempt after encountering initial failures.  

46.  What makes Agnibaan’s launch significant in the context of India’s space industry?

a) It is India’s first-ever rocket launch.

b) It is the world’s first rocket launch using a reusable engine.

c) It is India’s first privately funded and developed launch vehicle to successfully demonstrate a 3D printed engine.

d) It is the first Indian rocket to reach the moon.

Answer
    Answer: c) It is India’s first privately funded and developed launch vehicle to successfully demonstrate a 3D printed engine. This marks a major milestone for India’s private space industry, showcasing the capability of private players in advancing space technology and reducing launch costs.  

5.Appointment & Resignation in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

Dr. Emmanuelle Soubeyran Elected as New Director General of the World Organisation for Animal Health.

47.What is the primary role of the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE)?

A) To provide humanitarian aid.

B) To regulate international trade laws.

C) To ensure global animal health and welfare.

D) To promote educational standards worldwide.

Answer
    Answer: C) To ensure global animal health and welfare.

Explanation: The World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) is primarily responsible for ensuring global animal health and welfare, which includes controlling animal diseases and setting international standards.  

48.Who was recently elected as the new Director General of the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE)?

A) Dr. Margaret Chan

B) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus

C) Dr. Emmanuelle Soubeyran

D) Dr. Robert Redfield

Answer
    Answer: C) Dr. Emmanuelle Soubeyran

Explanation: Dr. Emmanuelle Soubeyran was recently elected as the new Director General of the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE).  

49.Which of the following best describes a key responsibility of the Director General of the OIE?

A) Negotiating trade agreements between countries.

B) Overseeing global animal health initiatives and policies.

C) Managing the global financial markets.

D) Directing global educational programs for children.

Answer
    Answer: B) Overseeing global animal health initiatives and policies.

Explanation: The Director General of the OIE is responsible for overseeing global animal health initiatives and policies, ensuring the implementation of standards, and managing the organization’s overall strategic direction.  

Appointment of new Chairman of Staff Selection Commission (SSC)

50.Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of the Staff Selection Commission (SSC)?

A) Rajesh Kumar

B) Anil Sharma

C) Rakesh Ranjan

D) Pankaj Tripathi

Answer
    Answer: C) Rakesh Ranjan

Explanation: Rakesh Ranjan was recently appointed as the Chairman of the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), taking on the responsibility to oversee the recruitment process for various posts in the Indian government.  

51.Who was recently appointed as the Chairman of the Staff Selection Commission (SSC)?

A) Rajesh Kumar

B) Anil Sharma

C) Rakesh Ranjan

D) Pankaj Tripathi

Answer
    Answer: C) Rakesh Ranjan

Explanation: Rakesh Ranjan was recently appointed as the Chairman of the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), taking on the responsibility to oversee the recruitment process for various posts in the Indian government.  

ICICI Prudential Board Chairman

52.Who has been approved by IRDAI as the new Chairman of ICICI Prudential’s Board?

A) Sandeep Batra

B) Rajiv Bajaj

C) Deepak Parekh

D) Chanda Kochhar

Answer
    Answer: A) Sandeep Batra

Explanation: Sandeep Batra has been approved by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) as the new Chairman of ICICI Prudential’s Board.  

53.What does IRDAI stand for?

A) Indian Regulatory Development Authority of Investments

B) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

C) International Regulatory Development Authority of Investments

D) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of Investments

Answer
    Answer: B) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

Explanation: IRDAI stands for the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India, which is the regulatory body overseeing the insurance industry in India.  

New Brand Ambassador of Muthoot Pappachan Group

54.Who has been recently appointed as the new brand ambassador of Muthoot Pappachan Group?

A) Salman Khan

B) Amitabh Bachchan

C) Shah Rukh Khan

D) Ranveer Singh

Answer
    Answer: C) Shah Rukh Khan

Explanation: Shah Rukh Khan has been recently appointed as the new brand ambassador of Muthoot Pappachan Group, a notable financial services company in India.  

55.What is the primary business of Muthoot Pappachan Group?

A) Information technology services

B) Real estate development

C) Financial services and gold loans

D) Film production

Answer
    Answer: C) Financial services and gold loans

Explanation: Muthoot Pappachan Group is primarily known for providing financial services, including gold loans, and various other financial products.  

6.Defence news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

‘Red Flag 24’ Air Force Exercise

56.Where is the Red Flag-Alaska 24 exercise being conducted?

(a) Nellis Air Force Base, Nevada

(b) Joint Base Pearl Harbor-Hickam, Hawaii

(c) Eielson Air Force Base and Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Alaska

(d) Tyndall Air Force Base, Florida

Answer
    Answer: (c) Eielson Air Force Base and Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Alaska. These two bases in Alaska provide access to the vast Joint Pacific Alaska Range Complex (JPARC), essential for the large-scale air combat training exercises.  

57.Which Indian Air Force fighter aircraft is participating in Red Flag 24 in Alaska?

(a) Tejas

(b) Sukhoi Su-30MKI

(c) MiG-29

(d) Rafale

Answer
    Answer: (d) Rafale. The Rafale is the IAF’s most advanced multirole fighter aircraft and its participation in Red Flag allows for training in a complex, multinational environment, enhancing its operational capabilities and interoperability with other air forces.  

60.What is the primary focus of the Red Flag 24 exercise for the IAF?

(a) Testing new weapons systems

(b) Strengthening diplomatic relations

(c) Enhancing combat readiness and interoperability

(d) Conducting aerial refuelling operations

Answer
    Answer: (c) Enhancing combat readiness and interoperability. Red Flag provides a realistic training environment for the IAF to practise complex air combat scenarios, improving its pilots’ skills and enhancing interoperability with other air forces.  

61.Which branch of the U.S. military is the primary organiser of Red Flag exercises?

(a) U.S. Army

(b) U.S. Navy

(c) U.S. Marine Corps

(d) U.S. Air Force

Answer
    Answer: (d) U.S. Air Force. The U.S. Air Force is responsible for planning and executing Red Flag exercises, though other branches may also participate.  

7.Technology in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

India’s First Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager 

62.Which two organisations have partnered to develop India’s first Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager?

a) Infosys and IIT Delhi

b) Wipro and IIT Madras

c) TCS and IIT Bombay

d) HCL and IIT Kanpur

Answer
    Answer: c) TCS and IIT Bombay. Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) and the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay) have formed a strategic partnership to develop this advanced imaging tool.  

63.What is the primary purpose of the Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager?

a) To improve the speed of quantum computing

b) To create more efficient solar panels

c) To enhance the examination of semiconductor chips

d) To develop new medical imaging techniques

Answer
    Answer: c) To enhance the examination of semiconductor chips. The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager is designed to provide a more precise and non-destructive way to examine semiconductor chips, potentially reducing failures and improving efficiency.  

64.How might the Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager impact the electronics industry?

a) By increasing the cost of electronic devices

b) By making electronic devices less reliable

c) By enabling the development of smaller, more powerful chips

d) By reducing the need for semiconductor chips

Answer
    Answer: c) By enabling the development of smaller, more powerful chips. The improved examination capabilities of the imager could lead to the identification and correction of flaws in chip design and manufacturing, ultimately allowing for the creation of smaller, more efficient, and more powerful chips.  

65.Which technology does the Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager utilize?

a) Artificial intelligence

b) Blockchain

c) Quantum sensing

d) 3D printing

Answer
    Answer: c) Quantum sensing. The imager leverages the principles of quantum sensing to detect and analyze magnetic fields within semiconductor chips.  

66.What is the expected timeframe for the development of the Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager?

a) Six months

b) One year

c) Two years

d) Five years

Answer
    Answer: c) Two years. The partnership between TCS and IIT Bombay aims to develop the imager within a two-year period.  

67.Which government initiative aligns with the development of the Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager?

a) Make in India

b) Digital India

c) National Quantum Mission

d) Skill India

Answer
    Answer: c) National Quantum Mission. The development of this advanced imaging tool aligns with the government’s National Quantum Mission, which aims to establish India as a global leader in quantum technology.  

8.Government organisation in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

PRAGATI-2024

67.What does PRAGATI-2024 stand for?

a) Pharmaceutical Research and Ayurvedic Growth Through Innovation

b) Pharma Research in AyurGyan And Techno Innovation

c) Progressive Research in Ayurveda, Growth, and Technological Implementation

d) Promoting Research and Advancements in Global Ayurveda and Traditional Indian Medicine

Answer
    Answer: b) Pharma Research in AyurGyan And Techno Innovation. PRAGATI-2024 is an initiative focused on promoting research and innovation in Ayurveda through collaboration between CCRAS and the Ayurveda drug industry.  

68.Which organization launched the PRAGATI-2024 initiative?

a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

b) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

c) Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS)

d) National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB)

Answer
    Answer: c) Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS). CCRAS is the apex body for research in Ayurvedic sciences in India and is responsible for launching this initiative.  

69.What is the primary goal of the PRAGATI-2024 initiative?

a) To increase the export of Ayurvedic products.

b) To promote the use of Ayurveda in primary healthcare.

c) To foster collaborative research and innovation in Ayurveda.

d) To standardize Ayurvedic education across India.

Answer
    Answer: c) To foster collaborative research and innovation in Ayurveda. PRAGATI-2024 aims to bring together CCRAS and the Ayurveda drug industry to explore research opportunities and develop new Ayurvedic products and technologies.  

70.Which ministry does the CCRAS operate under?

a) Ministry of Science and Technology

b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

c) Ministry of AYUSH

d) Ministry of Education

Answer
    Answer: c) Ministry of AYUSH. CCRAS is an autonomous body under the Ministry of AYUSH, which is responsible for Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy.  

71.What are the expected outcomes of the PRAGATI-2024 initiative?

a) Increased funding for Ayurvedic research.

b) Development of new Ayurvedic drugs and treatments.

c) Enhanced collaboration between CCRAS and the Ayurveda drug industry.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) All of the above. The PRAGATI-2024 initiative is expected to lead to increased funding, new product development, and stronger collaboration between research institutions and the industry.  

72.Who are the primary beneficiaries of the PRAGATI-2024 initiative?

a) Ayurvedic practitioners

b) Patients seeking Ayurvedic treatment

c) The Ayurveda drug industry

d) All of the above

Answer
    Answer: d) All of the above. The initiative aims to benefit all stakeholders involved in the Ayurvedic ecosystem, including practitioners, patients, and the industry itself.  

9.Economy in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

Morgan Stanley’s 2024 Global Economic Midyear Outlook

73.What is Morgan Stanley’s growth forecast for India in 2024?

a) 5.8%

b) 6.2%

c) 6.8%

d) 7.2%

Answer
    Answer: c) 6.8%. Morgan Stanley predicts India’s economy will grow by 6.8% in 2024, slightly lower than the RBI’s projection of 7%.  

74. What is the expected growth rate for India in 2025 according to Morgan Stanley’s forecast?

a) 6.0%

b) 6.5%

c) 7.0%

d) 7.5%

Answer
    Answer: b) 6.5%. Morgan Stanley forecasts a slight dip in India’s growth rate to 6.5% in 2025.  

75.Which three megatrends are identified by Morgan Stanley as contributing to India’s growth?

a) Globalization, digitization, urbanization

b) Offshoring, digitalization, energy transition

c) Demography, infrastructure, technology

d) Manufacturing, services, agriculture

Answer
    Answer: b) Offshoring, digitalization, energy transition. These three megatrends are seen as key drivers of India’s strong economic performance.  

76.According to Morgan Stanley, which sectors in India are expected to see broad-based growth?

a) Agriculture and manufacturing

b) Services and IT

c) Consumer and business spending

d) Exports and imports

Answer
    Answer: c) Consumer and business spending. The forecast indicates that growth will extend to both consumer and business spending, making it more broad-based.  

77. How does Morgan Stanley view the outlook for inflation in India?

a) It is expected to rise sharply.

b) It is expected to remain within policymakers’ comfort zone.

c) It is expected to fall below the target range.

d) It is a major concern for the economy.

Answer
    Answer: b) It is expected to remain within policymakers’ comfort zone. Morgan Stanley believes that inflation will not be a significant hurdle for India’s growth.  

78. What is a potential factor that could lead to faster-than-expected growth in India, according to Morgan Stanley?

a) A recovery in capital expenditures

b) A surge in exports

c) A decrease in government spending

d) An increase in interest rates

Answer
    Answer: a) A recovery in capital expenditures. This could be driven by a stronger business environment and policy reforms.  

79.Which global economic trend is expected to benefit India’s growth?

a) A slowdown in the US economy

b) A rise in protectionist policies

c) Stronger global growth

d) Increased geopolitical tensions

Answer
    Answer: c) Stronger global growth. This would lead to higher income from exports and support domestic capital spending in India.  

80.What is Morgan Stanley’s overall assessment of India’s economic outlook?

a) Cautious and uncertain

b) Positive and optimistic

c) Negative and pessimistic

d) Neutral and balanced

Answer
    Answer: b) Positive and optimistic. Morgan Stanley’s forecast indicates a positive outlook for India’s economic growth in the coming years.  

10.Awards & Recognitions in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

TIME100 Most Influential Companies 2024

81:Which Indian companies were featured on TIME100 Most Influential Companies 2024 list?

a) Reliance Industries, Infosys, Wipro

b) Reliance Industries, Tata Group, Serum Institute

c) Tata Group, Wipro, HCL Technologies

d) Adani Group, Tata Group, Infosys

Answer
    Answer: b)- Reliance Industries, Tata Group, Serum Institute. These companies were recognized for their significant impact in various sectors.  

82:Under which category was Reliance Industries featured in the TIME100 list?

a) Leaders

b) Disruptors

c) Innovators

d) Titans

Answer
    Answer: d)- Titans. Reliance Industries was recognized as a Titan for its large scale and influence in diverse sectors.  

83:Which Indian company was featured under the “Pioneers” category in the TIME100 list?

a) Reliance Industries

b) Tata Group

c) Serum Institute

d) Adani Group

Answer
    Answer: c)- Serum Institute. Serum Institute was acknowledged as a Pioneer for its significant contributions to vaccine development and manufacturing.  

84:How many Indian companies were featured in the TIME100 Most Influential Companies 2024 list?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Answer
    Answer: c)- 3. Reliance Industries, Tata Group, and Serum Institute were the three Indian companies featured on the list.  

85:What is the significance of Indian companies being featured on the TIME100 list?

a) It highlights the growing global influence of Indian businesses.

b) It indicates the technological advancements made by Indian companies.

c) It reflects the economic growth and stability of India.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d)- All of the above. The inclusion of these companies underscores their growing global influence, technological capabilities, and the overall positive economic trajectory of India.  

11.India in news at global platform – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

Colombo Process

86: What is the Colombo Process?

a) An economic cooperation forum among South Asian countries.

b) A regional consultative process on migration issues.

c) A military alliance between Asian nations.

d) A trade agreement between India and Sri Lanka.

Answer
    Answer: b)- A regional consultative process on migration issues. The Colombo Process focuses on issues related to labor migration and the welfare of migrant workers from South and Southeast Asia.  

87: Which country has taken over the chairmanship of the Colombo Process for 2024-2026?

a) Sri Lanka

b) Bangladesh

c) India

d) Philippines

Answer
    Answer: c)- India. This marks the first time India has assumed the chairmanship since the Colombo Process’s inception in 2003.  

88: How many member states are there in the Colombo Process?

a) 8

b) 10

c) 12

d) 14

Answer
    Answer: c)- 12. The Colombo Process consists of 12 member states in Asia that are origins of migrant workers.  

89: What are the key focus areas for India during its chairmanship of the Colombo Process?

a) Promoting safe, orderly, and legal migration.

b) Enhancing cooperation on skills development and recognition.

c) Strengthening diaspora engagement.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d)- All of the above. India aims to address these key areas during its chairmanship to improve the well-being of migrant workers and foster regional cooperation.  

90: Which organization acts as the secretariat for the Colombo Process?

a) United Nations

b) World Bank

c) International Labour Organization (ILO)

d) International Organization for Migration (IOM)

Answer
    Answer: d)- International Organization for Migration (IOM). The IOM provides technical and administrative support to the Colombo Process.  

12.”First” in news – Current Affairs MCQ 1 June 2024

First Successful Pig Liver Transplant

91: In which country was the first successful pig liver transplant in a living human conducted?

a) United States

b) China

c) Germany

d) United Kingdom

Answer
    Answer: b) – China. A team of Chinese surgeons successfully transplanted a genetically modified pig liver into a 71-year-old cancer patient in May 2024.  

92: What was the primary reason for using a pig liver in the transplant?

a) Pigs are readily available.

b) Pig organs are similar in size and function to human organs.

c) Pig organs are less likely to be rejected by the human body.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: b) – Pig organs are similar in size and function to human organs.  This similarity makes them a potential source for organ transplantation in humans.  

93: How was the pig liver modified before transplantation?

a) It was treated with antibiotics.

b) It was irradiated to kill any viruses.

c) Its genes were edited to reduce the risk of rejection.

d) It was frozen and thawed.

Answer
    Answer: c) – Its genes were edited to reduce the risk of rejection. This genetic modification is crucial to prevent the human immune system from attacking the transplanted organ.  

94: What condition did the patient receiving the pig liver transplant have?

a) Heart failure

b) Kidney failure

c) Liver cancer

d) Diabetes

Answer
    Answer: c) – Liver cancer. The patient had end-stage liver cancer, and the transplant was a last resort option.  

95: How long did the patient survive after the pig liver transplant?

a) 1 week

b) 2 weeks

c) 1 month

d) 2 months

Answer
    Answer: b) – 2 weeks. While the patient initially showed positive signs of recovery, he unfortunately passed away two weeks after the surgery due to complications.  

96: What were some of the challenges faced by the surgical team during the transplant?

a) Technical difficulties in connecting the pig liver to the human blood vessels.

b) Managing the patient’s immune response to the pig organ.

c) Preventing infection.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) – All of the above. Xenotransplantation (transplantation between species) is a complex procedure with multiple challenges.  

97: What are the potential benefits of using pig organs for transplantation?

a) Addressing the shortage of human organ donors.

b) Reducing waiting times for organ transplants.

c) Providing a potential cure for chronic diseases.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) – All of the above. Xenotransplantation holds the promise of revolutionizing the field of organ transplantation and addressing the critical shortage of organs.  

98: What are some ethical concerns surrounding the use of pig organs for transplantation?

a) Animal welfare

b) Risk of transmitting animal diseases to humans

c) Religious or cultural objections

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) – All of the above. Xenotransplantation raises ethical concerns related to animal rights, potential disease transmission, and religious beliefs.  

99: What is the future of xenotransplantation?

a) It is a promising field with potential to transform organ transplantation.

b) It is a controversial area with many challenges to overcome.

c) It is a technology that needs further research and development.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) – All of the above. Xenotransplantation is a complex field with great potential but also faces significant challenges and ethical considerations.  

100: Why is the successful pig liver transplant considered a milestone in medicine?

a) It is the first successful transplant of an animal organ into a living human.

b) It demonstrates the potential of xenotransplantation to address the organ shortage crisis.

c) It opens up new avenues for research and development in organ transplantation.

d) All of the above.

Answer
    Answer: d) – All of the above. This successful transplant represents a significant advancement in medicine, offering hope for millions of patients waiting for organ transplants and paving the way for further research and development in this field.  

Read Also: 100 MCQ Indian Mughal Empire – Best History MCQs

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top