Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQs. Understand constitutional design: its meaning, importance, and key features like federalism. Explore South Africa’s journey to democracy after apartheid and the making of the Indian Constitution, including fundamental rights and directive principles. Learn about the roles of key leaders in its creation.
Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQs – topics:
Basics of Constitutional Design (MCQ 1–10)
The Making of the South African Constitution (MCQ 11–20)
Why Do We Need a Constitution? (MCQ 21–30)
The Making of the Indian Constitution (MCQ 31–40)
Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution (MCQ 41–60)
The Right to Constitutional Remedies and Writs (MCQ 61–65)
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) (MCQ 66–75)
Key Figures in the Making of the Indian Constitution (MCQ 76–85)
Core Values of the Indian Constitution (MCQ 86–92)
Constitutional Design Class 9 MCQs – Mock Online Test
Question 1: What is the primary function of a constitution?
A. To establish a monarchy
B. To outline the powers of the military
C. To define the fundamental principles of governance
D. To regulate economic activity
C. To define the fundamental principles of governance. A constitution sets out the basic rules and principles by which a state is governed.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a reason why a constitution is necessary?
A. To provide a framework for government
B. To limit the powers of government
C. To guarantee the rights of citizens
D. To dictate daily life choices of citizens
D. To dictate daily life choices of citizens. A constitution primarily focuses on the structure and limitations of government and the fundamental rights of citizens, not on dictating their daily lives.
Question 3: How does a constitution typically function in a democracy?
A. It gives absolute power to the ruling party.
B. It provides a detailed plan for economic development.
C. It serves as the supreme law of the land, guiding all government actions.
D. It outlines the religious beliefs of the nation.
C. It serves as the supreme law of the land, guiding all government actions. In a democracy, the constitution is the highest law and sets the framework for how the government operates.
Question 4: Which of the following is an essential feature of a constitution?
A. It must be written.
B. It must be rigid and unchangeable.
C. It must outline the structure and powers of government.
D. It must specify the economic policies of the nation.
C. It must outline the structure and powers of government. A core function of any constitution is to define the different branches of government and their respective powers.
Question 5: What is the difference between a written and an unwritten constitution?
A. A written constitution is longer than an unwritten one.
B. A written constitution is codified in a single document, while an unwritten constitution is derived from multiple sources.
C. A written constitution is more democratic than an unwritten one.
D. There is no difference; all constitutions are written.
B. A written constitution is codified in a single document, while an unwritten constitution is derived from multiple sources. Examples of unwritten constitutions include that of the United Kingdom.
Question 6: Why is it important for a constitution to be adaptable?
A. To ensure the ruling party can easily change it to their advantage
B. To allow for quick adjustments to economic policies
C. To accommodate societal changes and evolving needs of the nation
D. To make it easier to switch between different forms of government
C. To accommodate societal changes and evolving needs of the nation. An adaptable constitution can remain relevant as society evolves.
Question 7: Which of these is an example of a fundamental right that a constitution might protect?
A. The right to own a car
B. The right to free speech
C. The right to unlimited wealth
D. The right to break the law
B. The right to free speech. Many constitutions guarantee fundamental rights such as freedom of speech.
Question 8: In a federal system of government, how is power distributed?
A. All power is concentrated in the central government.
B. Power is shared between the central government and regional governments.
C. Power is solely vested in the regional governments.
D. There is no government in a federal system.
B. Power is shared between the central government and regional governments. Federalism involves a division of powers between different levels of government.
Question 9: What is the purpose of the separation of powers in a constitution?
A. To create competition between different branches of government
B. To prevent any one branch of government from becoming too powerful
C. To ensure that all government officials are equally powerful
D. To divide the country into smaller regions
B. To prevent any one branch of government from becoming too powerful. The separation of powers ensures a system of checks and balances.
Question 10: Which of the following is a common method for amending a constitution?
A. A national referendum
B. A decision by the Supreme Court
C. A decree by the President
D. A vote in the legislature
D. A vote in the legislature. Constitutional amendments often require a special majority in the legislative body.
Question 11: Who was Nelson Mandela?
A. The first black president of South Africa
B. The leader of the apartheid regime
C. A famous South African musician
D. A British colonial governor
A. The first black president of South Africa. Nelson Mandela was a key figure in the anti-apartheid movement and became South Africa’s first black president.
Question 12: What was apartheid?
A. A system of racial segregation and discrimination in South Africa
B. A political party in South Africa
C. A traditional African dance
D. A type of South African cuisine
A. A system of racial segregation and discrimination in South Africa. Apartheid was a policy of racial segregation enforced in South Africa from 1948 to 1994.
Question 13: Which political organization played a key role in the struggle against apartheid?
A. The Democratic Alliance
B. The Inkatha Freedom Party
C. The African National Congress (ANC)
D. The National Party
C. The African National Congress (ANC). The ANC was at the forefront of the movement to end apartheid.
Question 14: What was the international community’s response to apartheid?
A. Widespread support
B. Indifference
C. Condemnation and sanctions
D. Military intervention
C. Condemnation and sanctions. The international community largely condemned apartheid and imposed various sanctions on South Africa.
Question 15: Which key event marked a major turning point in the transition to democracy in South Africa?
A. The release of Nelson Mandela from prison in 1990
B. The Soweto Uprising in 1976
C. The Sharpeville Massacre in 1960
D. The Rivonia Trial in 1963-64
A. The release of Nelson Mandela from prison in 1990. Mandela’s release was a pivotal moment signaling the beginning of the end of apartheid.
Question 16: What were the key negotiations that led to the end of apartheid?
A. The Lancaster House Agreement
B. The Camp David Accords
C. The Good Friday Agreement
D. The Convention for a Democratic South Africa (CODESA)
D. The Convention for a Democratic South Africa (CODESA). CODESA was a series of multi-party negotiations that paved the way for a democratic South Africa.
Question 17: What was the significance of Nelson Mandela’s presidency?
A. It marked the end of white minority rule in South Africa
B. It initiated a period of economic decline
C. It led to increased racial tensions
D. It resulted in South Africa’s isolation from the international community
A. It marked the end of white minority rule in South Africa. Mandela’s presidency symbolized the transition to a non-racial democracy.
Question 18: Which of these is a core value enshrined in the new South African Constitution?
A. Racial supremacy
B. Non-racialism and equality
C. Economic inequality
D. One-party rule
B. Non-racialism and equality. The South African Constitution is founded on the principles of non-racialism and equality for all.
Question 19: What is the spirit of reconciliation and unity in the context of South Africa’s transition to democracy?
A. A focus on revenge and retribution for past injustices
B. A commitment to forgiveness and building a shared future
C. A policy of ignoring the past and focusing only on the present
D. A system of preferential treatment for certain groups
B. A commitment to forgiveness and building a shared future. Reconciliation was a key aspect of South Africa’s peaceful transition.
Question 20: Which of these is a unique feature of the South African Constitution?
A. It is the oldest written constitution in the world
B. It does not guarantee any fundamental rights
C. It includes a Bill of Rights that protects a wide range of rights
D. It is based on the principles of apartheid
C. It includes a Bill of Rights that protects a wide range of rights. The South African Bill of Rights is comprehensive and progressive.
Question 21: How does a constitution help diverse groups live together?
A. By forcing everyone to follow the same religion
B. By establishing a common set of rules and values
C. By eliminating all differences between groups
D. By giving absolute power to the majority
B. By establishing a common set of rules and values. A constitution provides a framework of shared principles that can help diverse groups coexist peacefully.
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a key function of a constitution?
A. To limit the powers of government
B. To guarantee the rights of citizens
C. To outline the structure of government
D. To dictate the daily activities of citizens
D. To dictate the daily activities of citizens. A constitution primarily focuses on the organization and limitations of government and the protection of fundamental rights.
Question 23: How does a constitution protect the rights of minorities?
A. By granting them special privileges over the majority
B. By ensuring equal treatment under the law
C. By excluding them from the political process
D. By requiring them to adopt the majority’s culture
B. By ensuring equal treatment under the law. A constitution often includes provisions guaranteeing equality and non-discrimination, thus protecting minorities.
Question 24: In what way does a constitution provide stability and order?
A. By creating a rigid system that cannot be changed
B. By establishing a clear framework for governance and dispute resolution
C. By suppressing all forms of dissent and opposition
D. By promoting a single political party
B. By establishing a clear framework for governance and dispute resolution. A constitution sets out how decisions are made and how conflicts are resolved, contributing to stability.
Question 25: Which of the following is an example of a rule that might be found in a constitution?
A. The speed limit on highways
B. The price of bread
C. The requirements for becoming president
D. The schedule for national holidays
C. The requirements for becoming president. Constitutions often specify the qualifications and procedures for holding high government offices.
Question 26: A constitution might specify the powers of the legislature. Which of the following is an example of such a power?
A. To declare war
B. To appoint judges
C. To enforce laws
D. To interpret the constitution
A. To declare war. The power to declare war is often vested in the legislature.
Question 27: Which of the following is a right that a constitution might guarantee?
A. The right to a free car
B. The right to unlimited power
C. The right to freedom of speech
D. The right to break the law
C. The right to freedom of speech. Freedom of speech is a commonly protected fundamental right.
Question 28: How does a constitution define the relationship between the government and its citizens?
A. By giving the government absolute authority over citizens
B. By granting citizens the right to overthrow the government at any time
C. By establishing a system of checks and balances to protect citizens’ rights
D. By eliminating all forms of interaction between the government and citizens
C. By establishing a system of checks and balances to protect citizens’ rights. Constitutions often outline the rights and responsibilities of both the government and the citizens.
Question 29: Which of the following is an example of how a constitution might promote social justice?
A. By prohibiting discrimination based on race, gender, or religion
B. By favoring the wealthy over the poor
C. By denying education to certain groups
D. By allowing the government to arbitrarily arrest and detain citizens
A. By prohibiting discrimination based on race, gender, or religion. Non-discrimination clauses are common in constitutions aiming for social justice.
Question 30: How does a constitution contribute to national identity?
A. By imposing a single culture on all citizens
B. By outlining the shared values and principles of a nation
C. By preventing citizens from expressing their individual identities
D. By promoting conflict and division among different groups
B. By outlining the shared values and principles of a nation. A constitution can embody the fundamental ideals and aspirations of a country, fostering a sense of national unity.
Question 31: Which historical event directly led to the demand for an Indian Constitution?
A. The Sepoy Mutiny of 1857
B. The Non-Cooperation Movement
C. The Government of India Act of 1935
D. India’s Independence in 1947
D. India’s Independence in 1947. With independence, the need for a self-governing framework became paramount.
Question 32: How did the Indian freedom struggle influence the drafting of the Constitution?
A. It delayed the process
B. It had no impact
C. It shaped the values and aspirations reflected in the Constitution
D. It led to the adoption of a monarchy
C. It shaped the values and aspirations reflected in the Constitution. The ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, central to the freedom struggle, were enshrined in the Constitution.
Question 33: Who among the following leaders played a significant role in the early stages of constitutional development in India?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Motilal Nehru
D. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Motilal Nehru. He chaired the committee that produced the Nehru Report in 1928, an early attempt at drafting a constitution for India.
Question 34: Which body was responsible for drafting the Indian Constitution?
A. The Parliament of India
B. The Supreme Court of India
C. The Constituent Assembly
D. The Indian National Congress
C. The Constituent Assembly. This body was specifically formed for the purpose of drafting the Constitution.
Question 35: Who is considered the chief architect of the Indian Constitution?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. B.R. Ambedkar
D. B.R. Ambedkar. As the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, he played a pivotal role in shaping the Constitution.
Question 36: What was the major debate regarding the form of government for India?
A. Monarchy vs. Republic
B. Presidential vs. Parliamentary
C. Unitary vs. Federal
D. Democracy vs. Dictatorship
B. Presidential vs. Parliamentary. The Constituent Assembly extensively debated the merits of adopting a presidential or a parliamentary system of government.
Question 37: Which of these was a major challenge in drafting the Indian Constitution?
A. Lack of resources
B. Disagreement among leaders
C. Integrating diverse regional interests
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The drafting process involved navigating diverse opinions, regional aspirations, and socio-economic complexities.
Question 38: How did the Constituent Assembly address the issue of language diversity in India?
A. By making Hindi the sole official language
B. By adopting English as the only language of governance
C. By recognizing multiple official languages
D. By ignoring the issue altogether
C. By recognizing multiple official languages. The Constitution recognized Hindi and English as official languages and provided for the recognition of other regional languages.
Question 39: What was the challenge in incorporating social reforms in the Constitution?
A. Opposition from conservative groups
B. Lack of consensus on the nature of reforms
C. Balancing traditional practices with modern ideals
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Incorporating social reforms involved overcoming resistance from traditional elements and finding a consensus on progressive ideals.
Question 40: What was the significant contribution of B.R. Ambedkar to the Indian Constitution?
A. He was the leader of the Indian independence movement.
B. He was the President of the Constituent Assembly.
C. He drafted the entire Constitution by himself.
D. He chaired the Drafting Committee and played a key role in shaping the Constitution.
D. He chaired the Drafting Committee and played a key role in shaping the Constitution. Ambedkar’s expertise and leadership were crucial in the drafting process.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
A. Right to equality
B. Right to freedom of speech and expression
C. Right to property (was a fundamental right but removed later)
D. Right to life and liberty
C. Right to property (was a fundamental right but removed later). The Right to Property was initially a fundamental right but was later made a legal right.
Question 42: What is the significance of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. They are legally enforceable by the courts.
B. They are guidelines for the government to promote social and economic welfare.
C. They are fundamental rights that cannot be taken away.
D. They are provisions related to foreign policy.
B. They are guidelines for the government to promote social and economic welfare. While not legally enforceable, they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.
Question 43: How does the Indian Constitution balance the interests of the central government and the states?
A. By concentrating all power in the central government.
B. By granting complete autonomy to the states.
C. By establishing a federal system with a division of powers.
D. By having no clear division of power.
C. By establishing a federal system with a division of powers. The Constitution divides powers between the Union and the States through various lists.
Question 44: What is the role of the Supreme Court in interpreting the Constitution?
A. It has no role in interpreting the Constitution.
B. It is the final interpreter of the Constitution and can declare laws unconstitutional.
C. It can amend the Constitution.
D. It can only interpret the Constitution when asked by the President.
B. It is the final interpreter of the Constitution and can declare laws unconstitutional. The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of the Constitution.
Question 45: Which of the following is an amendment made to the Indian Constitution?
A. The addition of Fundamental Duties
B. The reduction of the voting age to 18
C. The creation of new states
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. All these represent significant amendments made to the Indian Constitution over time.
Question 46: Why is the Indian Constitution often referred to as a “living document”?
A. It cannot be amended.
B. It is constantly evolving through amendments to address changing needs.
C. It only applies to living citizens.
D. It is written on biodegradable material.
B. It is constantly evolving through amendments to address changing needs. The Constitution has been amended multiple times since its adoption to reflect the changing social, economic, and political landscape of India.
Question 47: What is the significance of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
A. It declares India a Hindu Rashtra.
B. It outlines the objectives and ideals of the Constitution.
C. It lists the fundamental rights of citizens.
D. It describes the powers of the President.
B. It outlines the objectives and ideals of the Constitution. The Preamble serves as an introductory statement that sets out the guiding principles and aspirations of the Constitution.
Question 48: How long did it take to draft the Indian Constitution?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
D. 5 years
C. 2 years, 11 months and 18 days. The Constituent Assembly took nearly three years to meticulously draft the Constitution.
Question 49: Which of the following sources inspired the Indian Constitution?
A. The Government of India Act of 1935
B. Constitutions of other countries like the UK, USA, Ireland, et
C. C. Ancient Indian texts like the Manusmriti
D. Both (a) and (b)
D. Both (a) and (b). The Indian Constitution draws inspiration from various sources, including the Government of India Act of 1935 and the constitutions of several other democratic nations.
Question 50: When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
A. 15th August 1947
B. 26th January 1950
C. 26th November 1949
D. 2nd October 1950
C. 26th November 1949. The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on this date and later came into effect on 26th January 1950.
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right in the Indian Constitution?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Property
D. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Property. While initially a fundamental right, it was removed by the 44th Amendment and is now a legal right.
Question 52: The Right to Equality guarantees all citizens equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on the grounds of…
A. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
B. Age, marital status, political affiliation
C. Economic status, educational qualifications
D. None of the above
A. Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth. Article 15 of the Constitution specifically prohibits discrimination on these grounds.
Question 53: Which fundamental right allows citizens to practice and propagate their religion?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
B. Right to Freedom. Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
Question 54: Under which fundamental right can a person move the court if their life or personal liberty is threatened?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right against Exploitation
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies. Article 32 provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights, including the issuance of writs like Habeas Corpus.
Question 55: The abolition of untouchability is guaranteed under which fundamental right?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Cultural and Educational Rights
D. Right to Freedom of Religion
A. Right to Equality. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
Question 56: Why are fundamental rights considered essential in a democracy?
A. They promote economic development.
B. They protect citizens from arbitrary government actions.
C. They guarantee social equality.
D. They ensure the smooth functioning of the government.
B. They protect citizens from arbitrary government actions. Fundamental rights act as limitations on the power of the state and safeguard individual liberties.
Question 57: The Right to Education was made a fundamental right by which constitutional amendment?
A. 86th Amendment
B. 91st Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 42nd Amendment
A. 86th Amendment. This amendment in 2002 inserted Article 21A, making the right to education for children between 6 and 14 years a fundamental right.
Question 58: Which of the following is NOT a restriction on the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression?
A. Contempt of court
B. Defamation
C. Incitement to violence
D. Criticism of government policies
D. Criticism of government policies. While the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression has reasonable restrictions, criticizing government policies is a protected aspect of free speech in a democracy.
Question 59: The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued to:
A. Enforce fundamental rights
B. Protect cultural heritage
C. Secure the release of a person unlawfully detained
D. Prevent environmental pollution
C. Secure the release of a person unlawfully detained. Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy against unlawful detention.
Question 60: Which fundamental right prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in hazardous occupations?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right against Exploitation
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right to Education
B. Right against Exploitation. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations.
Question 61: The Right to Constitutional Remedies is often referred to as:
A. The heart and soul of the Constitution
B. The backbone of the Constitution
C. The shield of the Constitution
D. The sword of the Constitution
A. The heart and soul of the Constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution because it ensures the enforcement of other fundamental rights.
Question 62: Which fundamental right allows minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Cultural and Educational Rights
D. Right to Education
C. Cultural and Educational Rights. Article 30 grants this right to religious and linguistic minorities.
Question 63: Which of the following writs can be issued to compel a public authority to perform a public duty?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Prohibition
D. Quo Warranto
A. Mandamus. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court or a public authority to perform a duty that it has failed to do.
Question 64: The Right to Freedom includes the right to form:
A. Political parties
B. Associations or unions
C. Religious groups
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Article 19(1)(c) guarantees the right to form associations or unions, which includes political parties, trade unions, and other organizations.
Question 65: Which amendment to the Constitution introduced Fundamental Duties?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment
A. 42nd Amendment. The 42nd Amendment in 1976 added Part IVA to the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Duties.
Question 66: What is the primary purpose of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
A. To provide guidelines for the government’s actions and policies.
B. To grant fundamental rights to citizens.
C. To establish the structure of the judiciary.
D. To define the powers of the President.
A. To provide guidelines for the government’s actions and policies. The DPSPs are non-justiciable guidelines that the state should keep in mind while formulating laws and policies.
Question 67: The Directive Principles of State Policy are:
A. Legally enforceable by courts.
B. Not legally enforceable but fundamental in governance.
C. Optional guidelines for the government.
D. Primarily related to economic policies.
B. Not legally enforceable but fundamental in governance. Article 37 clarifies that the DPSPs are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Question 68: Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?
A. Securing a decent standard of living for all workers.
B. Promoting international peace and security.
C. Right to freedom of speech and expression.
D. Organizing village panchayats as units of self-government.
C. Right to freedom of speech and expression. (This is a Fundamental Right). The other options are indeed Directive Principles.
Question 69: The DPSP that aims to provide free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 is found in:
A. Article 40
B. Article 45
C. Article 48
D. Article 51
B. Article 45. This article originally aimed for free and compulsory education up to 14 years, and was later reinforced by the 86th Amendment making elementary education a fundamental right.
Question 70: The concept of a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens is enshrined in:
A. Article 39
B. Article 44
C. Article 48A
D. Article 50
B. Article 44. This article directs the state to endeavor to secure a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.
Question 71: Which Article of the Indian Constitution emphasizes the separation of the judiciary from the executive?
A. Article 39A
B. Article 48
C. Article 50
D. Article 51A
C. Article 50. This article states that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
Question 72: The DPSP that promotes equal pay for equal work for both men and women is mentioned in:
A. Article 39
B. Article 39A
C. Article 42
D. Article 45
A. Article 39. Specifically, Article 39(d) states that the state shall direct its policy towards securing equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Question 73: The state’s responsibility to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and improve public health is mentioned in:
A. Article 41
B. Article 47
C. Article 48A
D. Article 51
B. Article 47. This article imposes a duty on the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties.
Question 74: Which of the following DPSPs aims to protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest?
A. Article 40
B. Article 48
C. Article 49
D. Article 51A
C. Article 49. This article obligates the state to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest, declared by or under law made by Parliament to be of national importance, from spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export, as the case may be.
Question 75: The DPSP that directs the state to endeavor to secure for all citizens a Uniform Civil Code is:
A. Article 38
B. Article 44
C. Article 48A
D. Article 51
B. Article 44. As mentioned before, this article specifically deals with the Uniform Civil Code.
Question 76: Who is often referred to as the “Father of the Indian Constitution”?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. B.R. Ambedkar. Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar is widely regarded as the “Father of the Indian Constitution” for his pivotal role as the chairman of the Drafting Committee.
Question 77: Which committee was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly?
A. Union Powers Committee
B. Provincial Constitution Committee
C. Drafting Committee
D. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights
C. Drafting Committee. This committee was responsible for preparing the draft of the Constitution.
Question 78: Which of the following leaders played a crucial role in integrating princely states into the Indian Union?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Along with V.P. Menon, Sardar Patel played a key role in the complex process of integrating the numerous princely states into the newly independent India.
Question 79: Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. Sachchidananda Sinha
C. B.N. Rau
D. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Sachchidananda Sinha (later succeeded by Rajendra Prasad). Sachchidananda Sinha was the interim President. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
Question 80: Which of the following leaders was NOT a member of the Drafting Committee?
A. N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
B. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
C. K.M. Munshi
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Jawaharlal Nehru. While Nehru was a crucial figure in the Constituent Assembly, he was not a member of the Drafting Committee.
Question 81: Who among the following was the legal advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
A. B.N. Rau
B. K.M. Munshi
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sarojini Naidu
A. B.N. Rau. Sir Benegal Narsing Rau was a distinguished jurist who served as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly.
Question 82: Which leader played a significant role in drafting the provisions related to fundamental rights?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. T.T. Krishnamachari
B. B.R. Ambedkar. As the chairman of the Drafting Committee, Ambedkar oversaw the drafting of all provisions, including those related to fundamental rights.
Question 83: The Constituent Assembly debates were recorded and compiled in:
A. The Constitution of India
B. The Constituent Assembly Debates
C. The Drafting Committee Report
D. The India Independence Act, 1947
B. The Constituent Assembly Debates. These voluminous records provide insights into the discussions and considerations that shaped the Constitution.
Question 84: Which of the following statements is true about the Constituent Assembly?
A. It was directly elected by the people of India.
B. It consisted only of members from the Indian National Congress.
C. It was composed of representatives from various provinces and princely states.
D. It was solely responsible for the partition of India.
C. It was composed of representatives from various provinces and princely states. The members were indirectly elected by the provincial legislative assemblies and nominated by the princely states.
Question 85: The final draft of the Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
A. 26th November 1949
B. 26th January 1950
C. 15th August 1947
D. 2nd October 1944
A. 26th November 1949. This is the date of adoption, while the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.
Question 86: Which of the following is NOT a core value of the Indian Constitution?
A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Theocratic
D. Theocratic. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, not a theocratic one where religion dictates governance.
Question 87: The term “Sovereign” in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution means:
A. India is a monarchy.
B. India is under the control of another country.
C. India is independent and can make its own decisions.
D. India has a dictatorial government.
C. India is independent and can make its own decisions. Sovereignty implies that India has supreme power and is not subject to external control.
Question 88: The “Socialist” aspect of the Indian Constitution emphasizes:
A. The importance of private wealth accumulation.
B. Social justice and equitable distribution of resources.
C. A single-party political system.
D. The abolition of all forms of private property.
B. Social justice and equitable distribution of resources. The socialist ideal aims to reduce inequalities in wealth, income, and opportunities.
Question 89: The term “Secular” in the Indian context means:
A. The state has its own religion.
B. The state favors one religion over others.
C. The state is neutral in matters of religion.
D. Religion has no place in public life.
C. The state is neutral in matters of religion. Secularism in India implies that the state respects all religions equally and does not have an official religion.
Question 90: Which core value ensures that all citizens have equal rights and opportunities, regardless of their background?
A. Democratic
B. Republic
C. Justice
D. Fraternity
C. Justice. The concept of justice in the Preamble encompasses social, economic, and political justice, aiming for fairness and equality.
Question 91: The principle of “Justice” in the Preamble ensures:
A. Social, economic, and political justice for all
B. Only social justice
C. Only economic justice
D. Only political justice
A. Social, economic, and political justice for all. The Preamble explicitly mentions securing social, economic, and political justice for all citizens.
Question 92: Which of the following is an example of how the value of “Equality” is reflected in the Indian Constitution?
A. Universal Adult Franchise
B. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C. Ban on discrimination based on caste, religion, gender, etc.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. These provisions aim to ensure different facets of equality, including political equality (universal adult franchise), social justice (reservations), and preventing discrimination.
