Evolution MCQ Class 12

Evolution MCQ Class 12. MCQs for Class 12 Evolution: Test your knowledge on origin of life, Darwin’s theory, natural selection, and human evolution concepts.

Evolution MCQ Class 12 – Mock Online Test

Question 1: Approximately how old is the universe?
A. 4.5 billion years old
B. 10 billion years old
C. 20 billion years old
D. 100 billion years old

Question 2: What is the name of the theory that explains the origin of the universe?
A. The Big Bang theory
B. The Panspermia theory
C. The Theory of Spontaneous Generation
D. The Theory of Special Creation

Question 3: Which of the following gases was NOT a major component of Earth’s early atmosphere?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Ammonia

Question 4: What process led to the formation of oceans on Earth?
A. The cooling of Earth’s molten surface
B. The accumulation of rain in depressions
C. The release of water vapor from volcanoes
D. All of the above

Question 5: When did life first appear on Earth after its formation?
A. 500 million years
B. 1 billion years
C. 2 billion years
D. 4 billion years

Question 6: What is the name of the theory that suggests life on Earth originated from outer space?
A. Panspermia
B. Biogenesis
C. Abiogenesis
D. Spontaneous generation

Question 7: Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ernst Haeckel
D. Karl Ernst von Baer

Question 8: What did Oparin and Haldane propose about the first form of life?
A. It came from pre-existing non-living organic molecules.
B. It came from outer space.
C. It arose through spontaneous generation.
D. It was created by a supernatural being.

Question 9: What did the Miller-Urey experiment demonstrate?
A. Life could arise from non-living matter.
B. Organic molecules could be formed from inorganic molecules.
C. The early Earth’s atmosphere was rich in oxygen.
D. Panspermia was a viable theory.

Question 10: What was the first non-cellular form of life?
A. RNA
B. DNA
C. Protein
D. Giant molecules

Question 11: When did the first cellular form of life originate?
A. 3 billion years ago
B. 2 billion years ago
C. 1 billion years ago
D. 500 million years ago

Question 12: What is the widely accepted theory for the origin of life on Earth?
A. Spontaneous generation
B. Panspermia
C. Biogenesis
D. None of the above

Question 13: What is the estimated age of the Earth?
A. 4.5 billion years
B. 20 billion years
C. 500 million years
D. 3 billion years

Question 14: What was the major source of water for the formation of oceans on Earth?
A. Rain
B. Volcanic eruptions
C. Melting glaciers
D. Extraterrestrial impacts

Question 15: What role did UV radiation play in the formation of Earth’s early atmosphere?
A. It broke down water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen.
B. It created organic molecules from inorganic matter.
C. It warmed the Earth’s surface.
D. It shielded the Earth from harmful radiation.

Question 16: What is the significance of the Miller-Urey experiment in the study of the origin of life?
A. It simulated the conditions of early Earth to show how organic molecules could form.
B. It proved that life could arise from non-living matter.
C. It demonstrated the process of photosynthesis.
D. It confirmed the existence of extraterrestrial life.

Question 17: What is the difference between cellular and non-cellular life forms?
A. Cellular life forms have a nucleus, while non-cellular life forms do not.
B. Cellular life forms are single-celled, while non-cellular life forms are multi-celled.
C. Cellular life forms have a membrane-bound structure, while non-cellular life forms do not.
D. Cellular life forms are capable of photosynthesis, while non-cellular life forms are not.

Question 18: What is the significance of the presence of organic compounds in meteorites?
A. It supports the theory of panspermia.
B. It suggests that similar chemical processes are occurring elsewhere in space.
C. It proves that life exists on other planets.
D. It indicates that Earth’s early atmosphere was rich in oxygen.

Question 19: What does the theory of special creation suggest about the diversity of life?
A. It has evolved gradually over time.
B. It has remained the same since creation.
C. It is constantly changing.
D. It is determined by natural selection.

Question 20: What was the name of the ship Charles Darwin sailed on around the world?
A. HMS Beagle
B. HMS Victory
C. HMS Endeavour
D. HMS Challenger

Question 21: What did Darwin’s observations during his voyage lead him to conclude about existing living forms?
A. They share similarities to varying degrees.
B. They are all unique and unrelated.
C. They were all created at the same time.
D. They do not change over time.

Question 22: What is the meaning of reproductive fitness in the context of natural selection?
A. The ability to survive in any environment
B. The ability to attract a mate
C. The ability to produce fertile offspring
D. The ability to adapt to changing conditions

Question 23: Who, besides Charles Darwin, is credited with independently conceiving the theory of natural selection?
A. Alfred Wallace
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Ernst Haeckel
D. Gregor Mendel

Question 24: What did Darwin propose about the age of the Earth?
A. It is about 4,000 years old.
B. It is millions of years old.
C. It is billions of years ol
D.
D. Its age is unknown.

Question 25: What is natural selection?
A. The process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits
B. The process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce
C. The process by which organisms change over time due to random mutations
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments

Question 26: What is the relationship between natural selection and evolution?
A. Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution.
B. Evolution is a mechanism of natural selection.
C. Natural selection and evolution are unrelated concepts.
D. Natural selection and evolution are the same thing.

Question 27: What is the main idea behind gradual evolution?
A. Evolution happens in large jumps.
B. Evolution happens slowly over time.
C. Evolution is a random process.
D. Evolution is driven by mutations.

Question 28: What is a common ancestor?
A. An organism that is the direct ancestor of all living organisms
B. An organism from which two or more different species evolved
C. An organism that has not evolved over time
D. An organism that is found in all fossil records

Question 29: What is the relationship between the geological history of Earth and the biological history of Earth?
A. They are closely correlated.
B. They are unrelated.
C. The geological history is much longer than the biological history.
D. The biological history is much longer than the geological history.

Question 30: What was the main challenge to the theory of special creation during the nineteenth century?
A. The discovery of fossils
B. The development of the theory of natural selection
C. The observation of variations within species
D. All of the above

Question 31: What did Darwin’s observations of variations within populations suggest about evolution?
A. Variations are irrelevant to evolution.
B. Variations are the raw material for natural selection.
C. Variations always lead to new species.
D. Variations are caused by environmental changes.

Question 32: What is the significance of extinctions in evolutionary history?
A. Extinctions show that evolution is a random process.
B. Extinctions provide opportunities for new life forms to arise.
C. Extinctions demonstrate the failure of natural selection.
D. Extinctions are unrelated to evolution.

Question 33: What is the role of environmental conditions in natural selection?
A. Environmental conditions have no effect on natural selection.
B. Environmental conditions determine which traits are favorable.
C. Environmental conditions cause mutations.
D. Environmental conditions prevent evolution.

Question 34: What is the ultimate measure of fitness according to Darwin?
A. Physical strength
B. Intelligence
C. Reproductive success
D. Lifespan

Question 35: What are fossils?
A. Living organisms preserved in amber
B. Remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks
C. Footprints of ancient animals
D. Frozen remains of extinct organisms

Question 36: What does the arrangement of sediments in Earth’s crust indicate?
A. The age of the Earth
B. The history of volcanic eruptions
C. The arrangement of sediments one over the other during the long history of Earth
D. The distribution of fossils

Question 37: What is paleontological evidence?
A. Evidence from the study of fossils
B. Evidence from the study of embryos
C. Evidence from the study of DNA
D. Evidence from the study of rocks

Question 38: What is the method used to calculate the ages of fossils?
A. Carbon dating
B. Radioactive dating
C. Sedimentary analysis
D. Morphological comparison

Question 39: Who proposed embryological support for evolution?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Ernst Haeckel
C. Karl Ernst von Baer
D. Alfred Wallace

Question 40: Why was Haeckel’s proposal of embryological support for evolution disapproved?
A. Embryos do not show similarities.
B. Embryos never pass through the adult stages of other animals.
C. Embryological development is too diverse.
D. Embryological development is not related to evolution.

Question 41: What is comparative anatomy and morphology?
A. The study of the structure of organisms
B. The study of the function of organisms
C. The study of the development of organisms
D. The study of the behavior of organisms

Question 42: What are homologous structures?
A. Structures that have similar functions but different anatomical structures
B. Structures that have different functions but similar anatomical structures
C. Structures that are found in unrelated organisms
D. Structures that have disappeared over time

Question 43: What are analogous structures?
A. Structures that have similar functions but different anatomical structures
B. Structures that have different functions but similar anatomical structures
C. Structures that are found in closely related organisms
D. Structures that have remained unchanged over time

Question 44: What is the significance of similarities in proteins and genes among diverse organisms?
A. It suggests convergent evolution.
B. It provides clues to common ancestry.
C. It indicates adaptation to similar environments.
D. It demonstrates the randomness of evolution.

Question 45: What is artificial selection?
A. The process by which humans selectively breed organisms for desirable traits
B. The process by which organisms with favorable traits survive and reproduce
C. The process by which organisms change over time due to random mutations
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments

Question 46: What is industrial melanism?
A. The darkening of organisms in response to industrial pollution
B. The increase in the number of dark-colored moths during industrialization
C. The adaptation of moths to camouflage against polluted tree trunks
D. All of the above

Question 47: What is the significance of the peppered moth case in evolutionary studies?
A. It shows how natural selection can lead to rapid evolutionary changes.
B. It demonstrates the impact of human activities on evolution.
C. It provides evidence for the concept of adaptation.
D. All of the above

Question 48: What is evolution by anthropogenic action?
A. Evolution caused by natural disasters
B. Evolution caused by climate change
C. Evolution caused by human activities
D. Evolution caused by random mutations

Question 49: What is the nature of evolution?
A. Deterministic
B. Stochastic
C. Predictable
D. Goal-oriented

Question 50: What does the study of fossils indicate about life forms on Earth?
A. They have remained unchanged over time.
B. They have varied over time and are sometimes restricted to certain geological time-spans.
C. They all existed simultaneously.
D. They show no clear pattern of change.

Question 51: What is the significance of the discovery of the Coelacanth in 1938?
A. It proved that dinosaurs still exist.
B. It provided evidence for the theory of spontaneous generation.
C. It was thought to be extinct, but its discovery provided evidence for the evolutionary history of amphibians.
D. It demonstrated the process of convergent evolution.

Question 52: What is the key feature that distinguishes mammals from reptiles?
A. They lay eggs.
B. They are cold-blooded.
C. They have scales.
D. They are viviparous.

Question 53: What is the most widely accepted explanation for the extinction of dinosaurs?
A. A catastrophic volcanic eruption
B. An asteroid impact
C. A combination of factors including climatic changes
D. The evolution of dinosaurs into birds

Question 54: What is the significance of the brain capacities of early hominids like Homo habilis?
A. It shows a trend of increasing brain size in hominid evolution.
B. It proves that Homo habilis was a direct ancestor of modern humans.
C. It suggests that Homo habilis had complex language skills.
D. It indicates that Homo habilis was a herbivore.

Question 55: What can be inferred from the observation that resistant organisms/cells are appearing in a time scale of months or years, and not centuries?
A. Evolution is a slow and gradual process.
B. Evolution can be accelerated by human activities like excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics.
C. Natural selection is not a significant factor in the development of resistance.
D. Resistant organisms existed previously, and their population has increased due to the excessive use of herbicides, pesticides, and antibiotics.

Question 56: What is the most significant factor in the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
A. The overuse of antibiotics.
B. The ability of bacteria to mutate rapidly.
C. The transfer of genetic material between bacteria.
D. All of the above

Question 57: What is adaptive radiation?
A. The evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and radiating to other areas of geography (habitats)
B. The adaptation of an organism to its environment
C. The process by which organisms become extinct
D. The movement of organisms from one place to another

Question 58: What is the significance of Darwin’s finches in evolutionary biology?
A. They provide evidence for the theory of special creation.
B. They are an example of homologous structures.
C. They represent one of the best examples of adaptive radiation.
D. They demonstrate the process of convergent evolution.

Question 59: What is another example of adaptive radiation besides Darwin’s finches?
A. The Australian marsupials
B. The peppered moths
C. The Galapagos tortoises
D. The dinosaurs

Question 60: What is convergent evolution?
A. When two or more species evolve similar traits in response to similar environments
B. When two or more species evolve different traits in response to different environments
C. When two or more species share a common ancestor
D. When two or more species become extinct

Question 61: What is the relationship between adaptive radiation and convergent evolution?
A. Adaptive radiation is a type of convergent evolution.
B. Convergent evolution is a type of adaptive radiation.
C. Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution are unrelated concepts.
D. Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution are the same thing.

Question 62: What is the best example of convergent evolution in the context of adaptive radiation?
A. Darwin’s finches
B. Australian marsupials and placental mammals
C. The peppered moths
D. The dinosaurs

Question 63: What is the significance of the fact that the marsupials of Australia are each different from the other?
A. It suggests that they evolved from different ancestors.
B. It indicates that they have undergone convergent evolution.
C. It shows that they have evolved in response to different environments.
D. It demonstrates the diversity of life on Earth.

Question 64: What is the relationship between the placental mammals of Australia and the marsupials of Australia?
A. They are closely related.
B. They have evolved similar traits in response to similar environments.
C. They have evolved different traits in response to different environments.
D. They share a common ancestor.

Question 65: What is the significance of the term ‘radiating’ in the definition of adaptive radiation?
A. It refers to the process of radioactive decay.
B. It indicates that the species are spreading out from a central point.
C. It suggests that the species are becoming more diverse.
D. It implies that the species are evolving rapidly.

Question 66: What is the main factor that drives adaptive radiation?
A. The availability of resources
B. The presence of predators
C. The occurrence of mutations
D. The isolation of populations

Question 67: When did the first cellular forms of life appear on Earth?
A. 4 billion years ago
B. 3 billion years ago
C. 2 billion years ago
D. 1 billion years ago

Question 68: What is the key process that drives biological evolution?
A. Natural selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow

Question 69: What is the importance of heritable characteristics in evolution?
A. They allow organisms to adapt to their environment.
B. They are the basis for natural selection.
C. They can be passed on to offspring.
D. All of the above

Question 70: What is the genetic basis of evolution?
A. Mutations
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic drift
D. All of the above

Question 71: What are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution?
A. Gradual evolution and common ancestors
B. Branching descent and natural selection
C. Mutation and gene flow
D. Genetic drift and adaptation

Question 72: Who proposed the theory of evolution driven by use and disuse of organs?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
C. Alfred Wallace
D. Gregor Mendel

Question 73: Why is Lamarck’s theory of evolution no longer accepted?
A. Acquired characteristics cannot be inherited.
B. Evolution is not driven by the use and disuse of organs.
C. There is no evidence to support Lamarck’s theory.
D. All of the above

Question 74: What is the relationship between evolution and natural selection?
A. Evolution is a process, and natural selection is the result of that process.
B. Natural selection is a process, and evolution is the result of that process.
C. Evolution and natural selection are the same thing.
D. Evolution and natural selection are unrelated concepts.

Question 75: What is the role of natural selection in evolution?
A. Natural selection causes mutations.
B. Natural selection determines which traits are favorable.
C. Natural selection drives gene flow.
D. Natural selection prevents evolution.

Question 76: What is the significance of the fact that natural resources are limited?
A. It leads to competition for resources.
B. It drives natural selection.
C. It limits population size.
D. All of the above

Question 77: What is the role of variation in natural selection?
A. Variation has no effect on natural selection.
B. Variation provides the raw material for natural selection.
C. Variation always leads to new species.
D. Variation is caused by environmental changes.

Question 78: What is the outcome of natural selection?
A. The appearance of new forms
B. The extinction of species
C. The adaptation of organisms to their environment
D. All of the above

Question 79: What is the main idea behind branching descent?
A. All living organisms share a common ancestor.
B. Evolution is a linear process.
C. Evolution is driven by mutations.
D. Natural selection is the only mechanism of evolution.

Question 80: What is the primary source of variation in a population?
A. Natural selection
B. Mutation
C. Genetic drift
D. Gene flow

Question 81: What is speciation?
A. The process by which new species arise
B. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment
C. The process by which organisms become extinct
D. The process by which organisms migrate to new environments

Question 82: What is the difference between Darwinian variations and mutations?
A. Darwinian variations are small and directional, while mutations are random and directionless.
B. Darwinian variations are random and directionless, while mutations are small and directional.
C. Darwinian variations and mutations are the same thing.
D. Darwinian variations and mutations are unrelated concepts.

Question 83: What is saltation?
A. The gradual process of evolution
B. The process of adaptation to new environments
C. The process of speciation caused by mutations
D. The process of extinction

Question 84: What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. A principle that describes the factors that can cause evolution
B. A principle that explains how natural selection works
C. A principle that states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation
D. A principle that describes the process of speciation

Question 85: What is genetic equilibrium?
A. The state in which allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant
B. The state in which a population is evolving
C. The state in which a population is undergoing natural selection
D. The state in which a population is experiencing gene flow

Question 86: What is the sum total of all allelic frequencies in a population?
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. It depends on the population.

Question 87: What does it mean if the frequency of alleles in a population differs from the expected values based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. The population is in genetic equilibrium.
B. The population is evolving.
C. The population is not experiencing any mutations.
D. The population is not undergoing natural selection.

Question 88: What are the factors that can affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. Gene migration or gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Mutation
D. All of the above

Question 89: What is gene flow?
A. The movement of genes from one population to another
B. The random change in allele frequencies in a population
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment

Question 90: What is genetic drift?
A. The movement of genes from one population to another
B. The random change in allele frequencies in a population
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment

Question 91: What is the founder effect?
A. The change in allele frequencies due to the migration of a small group of individuals from a larger population
B. The change in allele frequencies due to random events
C. The process by which new alleles arise
D. The process by which organisms adapt to their environment

Question 92: What were the first forms of life on Earth?
A. Single-celled
B. Multicellular
C. Plants
D. Animals

Question 93: What was the major event that led to the evolution of aerobic respiration?
A. The evolution of photosynthesis
B. The formation of the ozone layer
C. The increase in oxygen levels in the atmosphere
D. The appearance of multicellular organisms

Question 94: What is the significance of the evolution of photosynthesis?
A. It led to the increase in oxygen levels in the atmosphere.
B. It allowed for the evolution of aerobic respiration.
C. It made the evolution of complex life forms possible.
D. All of the above

Question 95: What are the two early primates that are considered to be the ancestors of humans?
A. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
B. Australopithecus and Homo habilis
C. Homo erectus and Homo sapiens
D. Neanderthals and Denisovans

Question 96: What is the estimated age of Dryopithecus?
A. 15 million years ago
B. 10 million years ago
C. 5 million years ago
D. 1 million years ago

Question 97: What is the significance of the discovery of Ramapithecus fossils?
A. They provide evidence for the evolution of humans from apes.
B. They show that Ramapithecus was a direct ancestor of modern humans.
C. They suggest that Ramapithecus was more man-like than Dryopithecus.
D. They indicate that Ramapithecus was a herbivore.

Question 98: What are hominids?
A. The ancestors of humans
B. The descendants of humans
C. The relatives of humans
D. The extinct species of humans

Question 99: What is the significance of the increasing brain capacity in hominid evolution?
A. It shows that hominids were becoming more intelligent.
B. It suggests that hominids were developing language skills.
C. It indicates that hominids were adapting to changing environments.
D. All of the above

Question 100: What is the scientific name for modern humans?
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo erectus
C. Homo sapiens
D. Homo neanderthalensis

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