Reproductive Health MCQ Class 12

Reproductive Health MCQ Class 12. Practice Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 Biology on Reproductive Health, including population issues, birth control, MTP, STDs & infertility.

Reproductive Health MCQ Class 12 – Mock Online Test

Question 1: What is the term used to describe the state of physical, mental, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction?

A. Physical Health
B. Reproductive Health
C. Mental Health
D. Emotional Health

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Reproductive Health. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health encompasses not only the physical but also the emotional and social aspects of reproduction.

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of reproductive health according to WHO?

A. Physical well-being
B. Financial stability
C. Emotional well-being
D. Social well-being

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Financial stability. WHO defines reproductive health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not just the absence of disease or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and its functions and processes.

Question 3: What is the broader perspective of reproductive health?

A. It only refers to healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.
B. It includes the emotional and social aspects of reproduction.
C. It focuses on the physical and mental health of the mother.
D. It primarily deals with the prevention and treatment of sexually transmitted diseases.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. It includes the emotional and social aspects of reproduction. While the basic understanding of reproductive health pertains to the well-being of physical reproductive organs, it also encompasses the emotional and social aspects.

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a major task under the ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes’?

A. Creating awareness among people about various reproduction-related aspects.
B. Providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society.
C. Promoting the use of traditional methods of contraception.
D. Educating people about safe sexual practices.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Promoting the use of traditional methods of contraception. The RCH programmes are aimed at creating awareness about various reproduction-related aspects and providing support for building a reproductively healthy society. They do not specifically promote traditional methods of contraception.

Question 5: What is the role of parents and teachers in promoting reproductive health?

A. They should discourage children from asking questions about sex.
B. They should provide accurate information about sex-related aspects to young people.
C. They should avoid discussing topics related to reproduction and sexuality.
D. They should primarily focus on promoting abstinence-only education.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. They should provide accurate information about sex-related aspects to young people. Parents and teachers play a crucial role in disseminating information about reproductive health, including educating young people about safe sexual practices and dispelling myths and misconceptions.

Question 6: What is the significance of sex education in schools?

A. It encourages children to engage in sexual activity.
B. It promotes early sexual experimentation.
C. It provides accurate information about reproductive organs, adolescence, and related changes.
D. It leads to increased rates of sexually transmitted diseases.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. It provides accurate information about reproductive organs, adolescence, and related changes. Sex education in schools is important for providing young people with the right information about sexual health, preventing them from believing in myths and misconceptions, and promoting responsible behavior.

Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of educating people about reproductive health?

A. Increased awareness of birth control options.
B. Better care of pregnant mothers and post-natal care of the mother and child.
C. Increased rates of sexually transmitted diseases.
D. Promotion of equal opportunities for the male and female child.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Increased rates of sexually transmitted diseases. Educating people about reproductive health leads to better awareness, improved care for mothers and children, and the promotion of gender equality. It does not lead to increased rates of STDs.

Question 8: What are some of the social evils that need to be addressed through awareness about reproductive health?

A. Uncontrolled population growth and sex-related crimes.
B. Early marriage and dowry system.
C. Poverty and illiteracy.
D. Gender inequality and discrimination.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Uncontrolled population growth and sex-related crimes. Awareness of the problems due to uncontrolled population growth and sex-related crimes needs to be created to enable people to take preventive steps.

Question 9: What is the significance of strong infrastructural facilities in attaining reproductive health?

A. They are not important for reproductive health.
B. They are only required for research purposes.
C. They are essential for providing medical assistance and care to people with reproduction-related problems.
D. They are primarily used for promoting awareness about reproductive health.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. They are essential for providing medical assistance and care to people with reproduction-related problems. Strong infrastructural facilities are essential to provide medical support and care to people facing reproduction-related problems like pregnancy, delivery, STDs, abortions, contraception, menstrual problems, infertility, etc.

Question 10: What is amniocentesis?

A. A surgical method of contraception.
B. A prenatal diagnostic procedure.
C. A treatment for infertility.
D. A sexually transmitted disease.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. A prenatal diagnostic procedure. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used primarily for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections.

Question 11: What is the purpose of the statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination?

A. To promote gender equality.
B. To control population growth.
C. To prevent illegal female foeticides.
D. To encourage family planning.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. To prevent illegal female foeticides. The statutory ban aims to curb the unethical practice of sex-selective abortions.

Question 12: What is ‘Saheli’?

A. A new surgical method of contraception.
B. A traditional method of birth control.
C. A new oral contraceptive for females.
D. An injectable contraceptive.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. A new oral contraceptive for females. ‘Saheli’ is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by Indian scientists.

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT an indicator of improved reproductive health of a society?

A. Increased maternal and infant mortality rates.
B. Better detection and cure of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
C. Increased number of couples with small families.
D. Better awareness about sex-related matters.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Increased maternal and infant mortality rates. Improved reproductive health is indicated by a decrease in maternal and infant mortality rates, not an increase.

Question 14: What was India’s population at the time of independence?

A. Approximately 1.2 billion.
B. Approximately 350 million.
C. Approximately 2 billion.
D. Approximately 6 billion.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Approximately 350 million. The population of India was around 350 million in 1947.

Question 15: What is the primary step towards achieving reproductive health?

A. Providing medical facilities and care.
B. Conducting research on reproductive health issues.
C. Counselling and creating awareness among people about reproductive organs, adolescence, and associated changes.
D. Implementing government policies and programs.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Counselling and creating awareness among people about reproductive organs, adolescence, and associated changes. Creating awareness about reproductive organs, adolescence and associated changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted infections (STIs) including AIDS, etc., is the primary step towards reproductive health.

Question 16: What is the term used to describe the state of physical, mental, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction?

A. Physical Health
B. Reproductive Health
C. Mental Health
D. Emotional Health

Show Explanation

Question 17: Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of reproductive health according to WHO?

A. Physical well-being
B. Financial stability
C. Emotional well-being
D. Social well-being

Show Explanation

Question 18: What is the broader perspective of reproductive health?

Show Explanation

Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a major task under the ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes’?

Show Explanation

Question 20: What is the role of parents and teachers in promoting reproductive health?

Show Explanation

Question 21: What is the significance of sex education in schools?

Show Explanation

Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of educating people about reproductive health?

Show Explanation

Question 23: What are some of the social evils that need to be addressed through awareness about reproductive health?

A. Uncontrolled population growth and sex-related crimes.
B. Early marriage and dowry system.
C. Poverty and illiteracy.
D. Gender inequality and discrimination.

Show Explanation

Question 24: What is the significance of strong infrastructural facilities in attaining reproductive health?

Show Explanation

Question 25: What is amniocentesis?

A. A surgical method of contraception.
B. A prenatal diagnostic procedure.
C. A treatment for infertility.
D. A sexually transmitted disease.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. A prenatal diagnostic procedure. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used primarily for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections.

Question 26: What is the primary reason for the rapid increase in human population?

A. Increased birth rate.
B. Decreased death rate.
C. Improved health facilities and better living conditions.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Rapid increase in population is primarily attributed to increased health facilities and better living conditions leading to a decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR), and an increase in the number of people in the reproductive age group.

Question 27: What was the world population in 1900?

A. 2 billion
B. 1 billion
C. 3 billion
D. 4 billion

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. 1 billion. The world population was around 1 billion in 1900.

Question 28: What is the approximate current world population?

A. 5 billion
B. 6 billion
C. 7 billion
D. 8 billion

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. 7 billion. The world population has crossed 7 billion. (Note: As of late 2022, the world population surpassed 8 billion. This answer reflects the source material’s date.)

Question 29: Which of the following is NOT a reason for the rapid population growth in India?

A. Improved healthcare facilities.
B. Lack of family planning education.
C. Increased poverty.
D. Decline in death rate.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Increased poverty. Poverty is not a direct cause of rapid population growth. Improved healthcare, lack of education, and a decline in death rate contribute to population growth.

Question 30: What was the population growth rate in India according to the 2011 census report?

A. 1.64%
B. 2.1%
C. 3.2%
D. 0.5%

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. 1.64%. The 2011 census report shows a population growth rate of 1.64%.

Question 31: What is the likely consequence of the alarming growth rate of the human population?

A. Improved living standards for everyone.
B. Depletion of natural resources.
C. Reduced pollution levels.
D. Increased biodiversity.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Depletion of natural resources. An alarming population growth rate can lead to a strain on resources, environmental degradation, and social problems.

Question 32: What is the aim of the ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH)’ programmes?

A. To increase the population growth rate.
B. To create awareness about reproduction-related aspects.
C. To promote traditional birth control methods.
D. To discourage family planning.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. To create awareness about reproduction-related aspects. The RCH programmes aim to provide education and services related to reproductive health and family planning.

Question 33: Which of the following is NOT a commonly used contraceptive method?

A. Abstinence.
B. Surgical methods (vasectomy/tubectomy).
C. Antibiotics.
D. Oral contraceptives.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Antibiotics. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are not a form of contraception.

Question 34: What is a key characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

A. It should be expensive and difficult to obtain.
B. It should have significant side effects.
C. It should be user-friendly and easily available.
D. It should interfere with sexual drive.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. It should be user-friendly and easily available. An ideal contraceptive should be effective, reversible, user-friendly, with no or minimal side effects, and easily available.

Question 35: Which of the following is a natural method of contraception?

A. Condoms.
B. IUDs (Intrauterine Devices).
C. Periodic abstinence.
D. Oral pills.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Periodic abstinence. Periodic abstinence (natural method) is a method of avoiding coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.

Question 36: Which of the following is an example of a barrier method of contraception?

A. Vasectomy.
B. Diaphragms.
C. Oral contraceptives.
D. Implants.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Diaphragms. Barrier methods prevent physical meeting of sperm and ovum.

Question 37: What is an IUD?

A. An injectable contraceptive.
B. An intrauterine device.
C. An oral contraceptive pill.
D. A surgical method of contraception.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. An intrauterine device. IUDs are devices inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through the vagina.

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT an example of an oral contraceptive?

A. Saheli
B. Mala-D
C. Copper-T
D. Progestasert

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Copper-T. Copper-T is an IUD, not an oral contraceptive. (Note: Progestasert is also an IUD, not an oral contraceptive. The question might be flawed in the source). Assuming the intended answer based on common knowledge, Copper-T is definitively an IUD.

Question 39: Which of the following is an injectable contraceptive?

A. Condoms.
B. Implants.
C. Depo-Provera.
D. Vaults.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Depo-Provera. Injectable contraceptives are administered once every three months. Implants are also a hormonal method but are placed under the skin, not injected periodically.

Question 40: Which of the following is a surgical method of contraception?

A. IUDs.
B. Oral pills.
C. Tubectomy.
D. Diaphragms.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Tubectomy. Surgical methods block gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.

Question 41: What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

A. A method of contraception.
B. A surgical procedure for sterilization.
C. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.
D. A treatment for infertility.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term. MTP is the medical procedure for induced abortion.

Question 42: Approximately how many MTPs are performed globally each year?

A. 10-20 million.
B. 45-50 million.
C. 70-80 million.
D. Over 100 million.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. 45-50 million. Globally, nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed each year.

Question 43: In which year did the Indian government legalize MTP?

A. 1947
B. 1971
C. 1994
D. 2003

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. 1971. MTP was legalized in India in 1971 with strict conditions to avoid its misuse.

Question 44: Why is MTP sometimes necessary?

A. To get rid of unwanted pregnancies.
B. When the continuation of pregnancy could be harmful or fatal to the mother or fetus.
C. In cases of rape or contraceptive failure.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. MTP is performed for various reasons, including unwanted pregnancies, health risks to the mother or fetus, and in cases of sexual assault.

Question 45: Up to how many weeks of pregnancy is MTP considered relatively safe?

A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 20 weeks

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. 12 weeks. MTP is considered safe during the first trimester, up to 12 weeks of pregnancy. (Note: Later term MTPs are possible under specific legal conditions but carry higher risks).

Question 46: Which of the following is a risk factor associated with illegal abortions?

A. Infertility.
B. Infection.
C. Excessive bleeding.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Illegal abortions, often performed by unqualified individuals, carry significant health risks, including infertility, infection, and hemorrhage.

Question 47: What is the misuse of amniocentesis in the context of MTP?

A. To determine the sex of the fetus for the purpose of sex-selective abortion.
B. To detect genetic abnormalities in the fetus.
C. To monitor the development of the fetus.
D. To treat infertility.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. To determine the sex of the fetus for the purpose of sex-selective abortion. Amniocentesis is misused to identify the sex of the fetus, leading to illegal sex-selective abortions.

Question 48: What is a potential consequence of unprotected coitus?

A. Unwanted pregnancy.
B. Sexually transmitted infections.
C. Emotional distress.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Unprotected sexual intercourse can lead to various consequences, including unwanted pregnancy, STIs, and emotional and psychological issues.

Question 49: Why should illegal abortions be avoided?

A. They are unsafe and can be fatal.
B. They are illegal.
C. They can lead to emotional and psychological trauma.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Illegal abortions pose serious health risks, are against the law in many places, and can have lasting emotional and psychological impacts.

Question 50: What measures can help reduce the incidence of illegal abortions?

A. Increased access to safe and legal abortion services.
B. Comprehensive sex education.
C. Improved access to contraception.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Addressing the issue of illegal abortions requires a multi-pronged approach, including access to safe abortion, sex education, and contraception.

Question 51: What is the primary aim of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)?

A. To control population growth.
B. To terminate unwanted pregnancies safely.
C. To prevent the birth of female children.
D. To promote the use of contraceptives.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. To terminate unwanted pregnancies safely. MTP aims to provide a safe and legal option for women to terminate pregnancies when necessary.

Question 52: What is a common misconception about MTP?

A. MTP is a safe procedure when performed by qualified medical professionals.
B. MTP can have physical and emotional side effects.
C. MTP is a form of contraception.
D. MTP is legal in India under certain circumstances.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. MTP is a form of contraception. MTP is not a contraceptive method; it is a procedure to terminate an existing pregnancy.

Question 53: What is a potential long-term complication of unsafe abortions?

A. Infertility.
B. Increased risk of future miscarriages.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Unsafe abortions can lead to various complications, including infertility, future pregnancy complications, and infections.

Question 54: What is the role of counseling in the context of MTP?

A. To discourage women from seeking MTP.
B. To provide information about the procedure, risks, and alternatives.
C. To judge women who are considering MTP.
D. To promote the use of contraception.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. To provide information about the procedure, risks, and alternatives. Counseling helps women make informed decisions about MTP and provides emotional support.

Question 55: What is the legal framework for MTP in India?

A. MTP is illegal in India.
B. MTP is legal in India up to 20 weeks of pregnancy under specific circumstances (Note: The MTP Act was amended in 2021, extending the upper gestation limit for certain categories to 24 weeks).
C. MTP is legal in India only in cases of rape.
D. MTP is legal in India without any restrictions.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. MTP is legal in India up to 20 weeks of pregnancy under specific circumstances (with recent amendments allowing up to 24 weeks for specific cases). The MTP Act in India provides a legal framework for safe and legal abortions.

Question 56: What is the significance of the MTP Act in India?

A. It legalized MTP under specific conditions.
B. It helped reduce the number of unsafe abortions.
C. It aimed to protect the health and rights of women.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. The MTP Act is a crucial step towards ensuring safe and legal abortion services in India.

Question 57: What is a major challenge in the implementation of the MTP Act?

A. Lack of awareness about the law.
B. Social stigma associated with abortion.
C. Limited access to safe abortion services in rural areas.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Despite the MTP Act, various challenges hinder access to safe abortion services.

Question 58: What is the role of healthcare providers in ensuring safe MTP?

A. To provide non-judgmental and compassionate care.
B. To ensure confidentiality.
C. To offer counseling and support.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Healthcare providers play a vital role in providing safe and supportive MTP services.

Question 59: What is a crucial step in preventing the need for MTP?

A. Comprehensive sex education.
B. Easy access to contraception.
C. Empowering women to make informed choices about their reproductive health.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Preventing the need for MTP involves a combination of education, access to contraception, and empowering women.

Question 60: What is the ultimate goal of reproductive healthcare programs?

A. To control population growth.
B. To promote safe motherhood and child health.
C. To empower individuals and couples to make informed choices about their reproductive lives.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: C. To empower individuals and couples to make informed choices about their reproductive lives. While promoting safe motherhood and child health (B) is a part of it, the overarching goal is empowerment and informed choice.

Question 61: What are Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)?

A. Infections caused by bacteria or viruses that are primarily transmitted through sexual contact.
B. Infections that affect only women.
C. Infections that are always symptomatic.
D. Infections that cannot be prevented.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Infections caused by bacteria or viruses that are primarily transmitted through sexual contact. STIs are infections that spread primarily through sexual activity, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex.

Question 62: Which of the following is NOT a common STI?

A. Gonorrhea.
B. Syphilis.
C. Genital herpes.
D. Malaria.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Malaria. Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease, not a sexually transmitted infection.

Question 63: How are STIs transmitted?

A. Through sexual intercourse.
B. Through sharing needles.
C. From mother to child during pregnancy or childbirth.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. STIs can be transmitted through various ways, including sexual contact, sharing needles, and mother-to-child transmission.

Question 64: Are all STIs curable?

A. Yes, all STIs can be cured with antibiotics.
B. No, some STIs are viral and cannot be cured, but their symptoms can be managed.
C. Only bacterial STIs are curable.
D. STIs are not treatable.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. No, some STIs are viral and cannot be cured, but their symptoms can be managed. While bacterial STIs can be treated with antibiotics, viral STIs like HIV and herpes are not curable but manageable.

Question 65: What are some early symptoms of STIs?

A. Itching, fluid discharge, sores, or pain in the genital area.
B. Fever, fatigue, and body aches.
C. No symptoms at all.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. STIs can present with a range of symptoms, including those mentioned, or be asymptomatic.

Question 66: Why is it important to detect and treat STIs early?

A. To prevent serious health complications.
B. To prevent transmission to others.
C. To reduce the risk of infertility.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Early detection and treatment of STIs are crucial to prevent complications, transmission, and long-term health issues.

Question 67: What are some potential complications of untreated STIs?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B. Infertility.
C. Increased risk of certain cancers.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Untreated STIs can lead to serious health problems, including PID, infertility, and increased cancer risk.

Question 68: Which age group is most vulnerable to STIs?

A. 5-10 years old.
B. 15-24 years old.
C. 40-50 years olD.
D. Over 65 years old.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. 15-24 years old. Young people are particularly vulnerable to STIs due to various factors, including risky sexual behaviors.

Question 69: What is a key principle for the prevention of STIs?

A. Avoiding multiple sexual partners.
B. Practicing safe sex by using condoms.
C. Getting tested for STIs regularly.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. STI prevention involves a combination of responsible sexual behavior, safe sex practices, and regular testing.

Question 70: What is the role of education in preventing STIs?

A. To increase awareness about STIs and their transmission.
B. To promote safe sexual practices.
C. To reduce stigma and encourage testing.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Education plays a vital role in STI prevention by increasing awareness, promoting safe sex, and reducing stigma.

Question 71: What is the impact of STIs on reproductive health?

A. STIs can cause infertility.
B. STIs can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancies.
C. STIs can be transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. STIs have a significant impact on reproductive health, leading to various complications.

Question 72: What is a common myth about STIs?

A. STIs can only be transmitted through sexual intercourse.
B. STIs can be prevented by using condoms consistently.
C. STIs can be asymptomatic.
D. STIs can be cured with antibiotics.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. STIs can only be transmitted through sexual intercourse. This is a myth; STIs can also be transmitted through other means, such as sharing needles or from mother to child.

Question 73: What is the role of condoms in STI prevention?

A. Condoms provide 100% protection against STIs.
B. Condoms reduce the risk of STI transmission.
C. Condoms are not effective in preventing STIs.
D. Condoms are only necessary for casual sexual encounters.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Condoms reduce the risk of STI transmission. While not 100% effective, condoms significantly reduce the risk of STI transmission when used correctly and consistently.

Question 74: What is the significance of regular STI testing?

A. It helps detect STIs early, even if there are no symptoms.
B. It allows for prompt treatment and prevents complications.
C. It helps prevent the spread of STIs to others.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Regular STI testing is crucial for early detection, treatment, and prevention of transmission.

Question 75: What is the impact of stigma on STI prevention and control?

A. Stigma encourages people to get tested for STIs.
B. Stigma prevents people from seeking testing and treatment.
C. Stigma has no impact on STI prevention and control.
D. Stigma only affects people with STIs.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Stigma prevents people from seeking testing and treatment. Stigma associated with STIs can be a major barrier to seeking healthcare.

Question 76: What is the role of healthcare providers in STI prevention and control?

A. To provide accurate information about STIs.
B. To offer non-judgmental testing and treatment services.
C. To encourage safe sexual practices.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Healthcare providers play a crucial role in STI prevention and control through education, testing, and treatment.

Question 77: What is the importance of partner notification in STI control?

A. It is not necessary to notify partners about STI diagnosis.
B. Partner notification helps ensure that all sexual partners are tested and treated.
C. Partner notification is only important for married couples.
D. Partner notification is an invasion of privacy.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. Partner notification helps ensure that all sexual partners are tested and treated. Partner notification is essential to prevent the further spread of STIs.

Question 78: What is the impact of STIs on public health?

A. STIs have no impact on public health.
B. STIs can lead to increased healthcare costs.
C. STIs can cause long-term disability.
D. Both B and C.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Both B and C. STIs have significant public health implications, including increased healthcare costs and potential long-term disability.

Question 79: What is the role of research in STI control?

A. Research is not important for STI control.
B. Research helps develop new diagnostic tests and treatments for STIs.
C. Research helps understand the epidemiology of STIs.
D. Both B and C.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. Both B and C. Research plays a vital role in developing better tools and strategies for STI control.

Question 80: What is the global strategy for STI control?

A. There is no global strategy for STI control.
B. The global strategy focuses on prevention, testing, and treatment.
C. The global strategy only focuses on HIV/AIDS.
D. The global strategy aims to eradicate all STIs.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. The global strategy focuses on prevention, testing, and treatment. The global strategy for STI control emphasizes a comprehensive approach, including prevention, testing, and treatment.

Question 81: What is infertility?

A. The inability to conceive a child after one year of unprotected intercourse.
B. A condition that affects only women.
C. A condition that always has a clear medical cause.
D. A condition that cannot be treated.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. The inability to conceive a child after one year (or sometimes defined as two years) of regular, unprotected intercourse. Infertility is the inability to achieve pregnancy after a certain period of regular, unprotected sex.

Question 82: What are some possible reasons for infertility?

A. Physical factors, such as blocked fallopian tubes or low sperm count.
B. Medical conditions, such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or endometriosis.
C. Lifestyle factors, such as smoking or excessive alcohol consumption.
D. All of the above.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Infertility can be caused by a variety of factors affecting either or both partners.

Question 83: What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART)?

A. Medical procedures used to treat infertility.
B. Traditional methods of contraception.
C. Surgical procedures to prevent pregnancy.
D. Medications to increase fertility.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Medical procedures used to treat infertility. ART encompasses various techniques used to handle eggs and/or sperm outside the body to help infertile couples achieve pregnancy.

Question 84: What is In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)?

A. A surgical procedure to remove a blockage in the fallopian tubes.
B. A procedure where fertilization occurs outside the body and the embryo is transferred to the uterus.
C. A medication to stimulate ovulation.
D. A method of contraception.

Show Explanation

Correct Answer: B. A procedure where fertilization occurs outside the body and the embryo is transferred to the uterus. IVF involves fertilizing an egg with sperm in a laboratory (‘in vitro’) and transferring the resulting embryo(s) to the uterus.

Question 85: What is Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI)?

A. A procedure where sperm is directly injected into the uterus.
B. A surgical procedure to correct abnormalities in the reproductive organs.
C. A method of contraception.
D. A medication to improve egg quality.

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Correct Answer: A. A procedure where sperm is directly injected into the uterus. IUI involves placing specially prepared sperm directly into the uterus around the time of ovulation to increase the chances of fertilization.

Question 86: What are some other ART techniques besides IVF and IUI?

A. ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer).
B. GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer).
C. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection).
D. All of the above.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. These are alternative ART techniques with specific applications depending on the cause of infertility. ICSI is often used in conjunction with IVF.

Question 87: What are some limitations of ART techniques?

A. They can be expensive.
B. They are not always successful.
C. They can have emotional and physical side effects.
D. All of the above.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. ART procedures have limitations, including cost, variable success rates, and potential physical and emotional tolls.

Question 88: What are some emotional and social factors associated with infertility and ART?

A. Stress, anxiety, and depression.
B. Relationship challenges.
C. Social stigma and cultural pressures.
D. All of the above.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Infertility and ART can have a significant impact on individuals and couples emotionally and socially.

Question 89: What is the role of counseling in the context of infertility and ART?

A. To provide emotional support and guidance to couples.
B. To help couples make informed decisions about their treatment options.
C. To address ethical and social considerations related to ART.
D. All of the above.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Counseling is an important component of infertility treatment, providing support, information, and helping navigate complex decisions.

Question 90: What is an alternative option for couples facing infertility who do not wish to pursue ART?

A. Adoption.
B. Surrogacy (Note: Surrogacy often involves ART).
C. Remaining childless.
D. All of the above (with clarification on surrogacy).

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. Couples have various options besides ART, including adoption or choosing to remain childless. Surrogacy is another option but usually involves ART procedures.

Question 91: What is the success rate of ART procedures?

A. ART procedures are always successful.
B. The success rate of ART procedures varies depending on several factors.
C. ART procedures have a very low success rate.
D. The success rate of ART procedures is not important.

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Correct Answer: B. The success rate of ART procedures varies depending on several factors. The success of ART depends on factors like the age of the woman, cause of infertility, specific technique used, and the clinic’s expertise.

Question 92: What are some ethical considerations related to ART?

A. The use of donor eggs or sperm.
B. The potential for multiple pregnancies.
C. The fate of unused embryos.
D. All of the above.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. ART raises various ethical questions concerning donors, multiple births, embryo status, and access that individuals and society need to consider.

Question 93: What is the role of legislation in ART?

A. There are no laws regulating ART.
B. Legislation helps protect the rights and welfare of individuals undergoing ART, donors, and resulting children.
C. Legislation restricts access to ART.
D. Legislation promotes the use of ART for all couples.

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Correct Answer: B. Legislation helps protect the rights and welfare of individuals undergoing ART. Laws and guidelines are necessary in many jurisdictions to ensure ethical and safe practices in ART.

Question 94: What is the impact of infertility on individuals and couples?

A. Infertility has no impact on individuals or couples.
B. Infertility can cause emotional distress, including sadness, anger, and anxiety.
C. Infertility can strain relationships and affect social interactions.
D. Both B and C.

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Correct Answer: D. Both B and C. Infertility can have significant emotional, psychological, and social consequences for individuals and couples.

Question 95: What is the role of support groups in coping with infertility?

A. Support groups are not helpful for people experiencing infertility.
B. Support groups provide a space for individuals and couples to share their experiences and connect with others facing similar challenges.
C. Support groups offer medical advice and treatment options.
D. Support groups discourage people from seeking professional help.

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Correct Answer: B. Support groups provide a space for individuals and couples to share their experiences and connect with others. Support groups can offer valuable emotional and social support and reduce feelings of isolation for those facing infertility.

Question 96: What is the impact of culture and religion on infertility and ART?

A. Culture and religion have no influence on infertility and ART.
B. Cultural and religious beliefs can shape attitudes towards infertility, family size, and the acceptability of various ART procedures.
C. All cultures and religions have the same views on infertility and ART.
D. Culture and religion always promote the use of ART.

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Correct Answer: B. Cultural and religious beliefs can shape attitudes towards infertility and the acceptability of ART. Different cultures and religions have varying perspectives on infertility and the use of ART.

Question 97: What is the role of education in addressing infertility?

A. Education is not important in addressing infertility.
B. Education can raise awareness about infertility, its causes, and risk factors.
C. Education can promote healthy lifestyle choices that can positively impact fertility.
D. Both B and C.

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Correct Answer: D. Both B and C. Education plays a crucial role in raising awareness about infertility, prevention strategies, and promoting healthy behaviors.

Question 98: What is the future of ART?

A. ART is a stagnant field with no further developments.
B. Research is ongoing to improve the success rates, safety, and accessibility of ART procedures.
C. ART will eventually be able to solve all infertility problems.
D. ART will become increasingly expensive and inaccessible.

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Correct Answer: B. Research is ongoing to improve the success rates and safety of ART procedures. The field of ART is constantly evolving with ongoing research into areas like genetics, cryopreservation, and implantation.

Question 99: What is the main goal of infertility treatment?

A. To help individuals and couples achieve their dream of parenthood.
B. To control population growth.
C. To promote the use of ART for all couples.
D. To eliminate the need for adoption.

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Correct Answer: A. To help individuals and couples achieve their dream of parenthood. Infertility treatment aims to diagnose and treat the underlying causes of infertility to support individuals and couples in fulfilling their desire to have children.

Question 100: What is the most important message for individuals and couples facing infertility?

A. Infertility is a personal failure.
B. Infertility is a rare condition.
C. Infertility is a medical condition that can often be addressed with appropriate medical evaluation, support, and treatment.
D. Infertility always requires ART.

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Correct Answer: C. Infertility is a medical condition that can be addressed with appropriate support and treatment. It is essential to remember that infertility is a common medical issue, not a personal failing, and various options are available for support and treatment.