Biomolecules Class 11 MCQ. Practice important multiple-choice questions on Biomolecules for Class 11. Covers proteins, enzymes, nucleic acids & composition for study.
Biomolecules Class 11 MCQ – Mock Online Test
Question 1: Which element is found in higher relative abundance in living organisms compared to the Earth’s crust?
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum
C. Carbon
D. Oxygen
C. Carbon. The text states that living organisms have a higher relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen compared to the Earth’s crust.
Question 2: What is the primary component of the acid-insoluble fraction in living tissues?
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Nucleic acids
A. Proteins. The acid-insoluble fraction primarily consists of proteins.
Question 3: Which technique is commonly used to analyze the elemental composition of a sample?
A. Chromatography
B. Spectroscopy
C. Microscopy
D. Elemental analysis
D. Elemental analysis. The text mentions that elemental analysis is performed to determine the elemental composition of a sample.
Question 4: What type of organic compounds are predominantly found in living organisms?
A. Inorganic compounds
B. Synthetic polymers
C. Biomolecules
D. Minerals
C. Biomolecules. Living organisms are primarily composed of organic compounds called biomolecules.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a key difference between the elemental composition of living tissues and the Earth’s crust?
A. Higher relative abundance of carbon in living tissues
B. Presence of unique elements in living tissues not found in the Earth’s crust
C. Higher relative abundance of hydrogen in living tissues
D. Different ratios of elements in living tissues compared to the Earth’s crust
B. Presence of unique elements in living tissues not found in the Earth’s crust. The text states that all elements found in living tissues are also present in the Earth’s crust, but their relative abundance differs.
Question 6: What is the primary function of primary metabolites?
A. Defense against predators
B. Communication between organisms
C. Essential for normal physiological processes
D. Providing structural support
C. Essential for normal physiological processes. Primary metabolites are involved in essential functions like growth, development, and reproduction.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a category of secondary metabolites?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Pigments
C. Alkaloids
D. Terpenoids
A. Carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are primary metabolites, not secondary metabolites.
Question 8: What is the role of secondary metabolites in plants?
A. Energy production
B. Defense against herbivores
C. Photosynthesis
D. Water transport
B. Defense against herbivores. Many secondary metabolites, like toxins and lectins, help protect plants from herbivores.
Question 9: Which of the following is an example of a secondary metabolite used as a drug?
A. Glucose
B. Morphine
C. Insulin
D. Hemoglobin
B. Morphine. Morphine is an alkaloid derived from the opium poppy and is used as a pain reliever.
Question 10: How do secondary metabolites contribute to human welfare?
A. By providing essential nutrients
B. By serving as a source of energy
C. By acting as drugs, pigments, and flavoring agents
D. By regulating pH balance
C. By acting as drugs, pigments, and flavoring agents. Secondary metabolites have various applications in medicine, industry, and food.
Question 11: Which of the following is a polymeric substance that is considered a secondary metabolite?
A. Cellulose
B. Rubber
C. Starch
D. Glycogen
B. Rubber. Rubber is a terpenoid and is considered a secondary metabolite.
Question 12: What role do pigments play as secondary metabolites?
A. Catalyzing biochemical reactions
B. Providing structural support
C. Imparting color to flowers and fruits
D. Transporting oxygen
C. Imparting color to flowers and fruits. Pigments like carotenoids and anthocyanins give color to various plant parts.
Question 13: How do essential oils contribute to ecological interactions?
A. By attracting pollinators
B. By providing camouflage
C. By regulating temperature
D. By storing energy
A. By attracting pollinators. Essential oils often have strong fragrances that attract insects for pollination.
Question 14: Which of the following is an example of a lectin?
A. Caffeine
B. Nicotine
C. Ricin
D. Quinine
C. Ricin. Ricin is a toxic lectin found in castor beans.
Question 15: Why are toxins considered secondary metabolites?
A. They are essential for normal growth and development.
B. They are involved in primary metabolic pathways.
C. They are not directly involved in essential physiological processes.
D. They are produced in large quantities by all organisms.
C. They are not directly involved in essential physiological processes. Toxins are often produced for defense or competition, not for basic metabolic functions.
Question 16: What is the main distinguishing factor between macromolecules and micromolecules?
A. Their physical state
B. Their elemental composition
C. Their molecular weight
D. Their solubility in water
C. Their molecular weight. Macromolecules have a high molecular weight, typically over 1000 daltons.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of macromolecules?
A. They are large polymers.
B. They have a low molecular weight.
C. They are formed by the polymerization of monomers.
D. They play crucial roles in living organisms.
B. They have a low molecular weight. Macromolecules have a high molecular weight.
Question 18: Why are lipids considered macromolecules despite having a smaller molecular weight than other macromolecules?
A. They form large aggregates.
B. They are insoluble in water.
C. They contain long hydrocarbon chains.
D. They play a crucial role in energy storage.
A. They form large aggregates. Lipids aggregate to form larger structures, making them functionally similar to other macromolecules.
Question 19: Which of the following is an example of a micromolecule?
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. DNA
D. Starch
B. Glucose. Glucose is a simple sugar with a low molecular weight.
Question 20: How are macromolecules formed?
A. By the breakdown of smaller molecules
B. By the polymerization of monomers
C. By the absorption of energy
D. By the release of water
B. By the polymerization of monomers. Macromolecules are formed by joining repeating subunits called monomers.
Question 21: What type of bond links amino acids together in a polypeptide chain?
A. Glycosidic bond
B. Phosphodiester bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Peptide bond
D. Peptide bond. Peptide bonds link the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of another.
Question 22: What is the difference between essential and non-essential amino acids?
A. Essential amino acids are more important for the body.
B. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet.
C. Non-essential amino acids are not used to build proteins.
D. Essential amino acids are only found in animal products.
B. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
A. Energy storage
B. Transport of molecules
C. Defense against pathogens
D. Hormone production
A. Energy storage. While proteins can be metabolized for energy, their primary functions are not related to energy storage.
Question 24: What is the most abundant protein in the animal kingdom?
A. Collagen
B. RuBisCO
C. Insulin
D. Hemoglobin
A. Collagen. Collagen is a structural protein found in connective tissues.
Question 25: What is the most abundant protein in the plant kingdom?
A. Collagen
B. RuBisCO
C. Insulin
D. Hemoglobin
B. RuBisCO. RuBisCO is an enzyme involved in photosynthesis.
Question 26: Which of the following is an example of a protein hormone?
A. Glucose
B. Insulin
C. Cholesterol
D. Cellulose
B. Insulin. Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels.
Question 27: How do proteins contribute to defense against pathogens?
A. By acting as enzymes
B. By forming antibodies
C. By providing structural support
D. By transporting nutrients
B. By forming antibodies. Antibodies are proteins that recognize and neutralize foreign invaders.
Question 28: What is the primary function of transport proteins?
A. To catalyze biochemical reactions
B. To move molecules across cell membranes
C. To provide structural support
D. To store genetic information
B. To move molecules across cell membranes. Transport proteins facilitate the movement of molecules across cell membranes.
Question 29: Which of the following is an example of a structural protein?
A. Insulin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Collagen
D. Amylase
C. Collagen. Collagen is a major component of connective tissues, providing structural support.
Question 30: Which of the following proteins is involved in oxygen transport?
A. Insulin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Collagen
D. Amylase
B. Hemoglobin. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to the tissues.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT a polysaccharide?
A. Cellulose
B. Glucose
C. Starch
D. Glycogen
B. Glucose. Glucose is a monosaccharide, the basic building block of polysaccharides.
Question 32: What is the primary function of cellulose?
A. Energy storage in plants
B. Structural component of plant cell walls
C. Energy storage in animals
D. Transport of nutrients
B. Structural component of plant cell walls. Cellulose provides rigidity and strength to plant cells.
Question 33: Which polysaccharide serves as an energy storage molecule in animals?
A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Inulin
C. Glycogen. Glycogen is stored in the liver and muscles of animals.
Question 34: What is the difference between the reducing and non-reducing ends of a polysaccharide chain?
A. The reducing end can participate in chemical reactions while the non-reducing end cannot.
B. The reducing end has a free anomeric carbon while the non-reducing end does not.
C. The reducing end is always on the left side of the chain.
D. The reducing end is more stable than the non-reducing end.
B. The reducing end has a free anomeric carbon while the non-reducing end does not. The anomeric carbon is involved in forming glycosidic bonds.
Question 35: Which polysaccharide forms a helical secondary structure that can hold iodine molecules?
A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Inulin
D. Chitin
B. Starch. The helical structure of starch allows it to trap iodine molecules, resulting in a blue color.
Question 36: What is the main component of the exoskeleton of arthropods?
A. Cellulose
B. Chitin
C. Starch
D. Glycogen
B. Chitin. Chitin is a complex polysaccharide that provides structural support.
Question 37: Which of the following is a homopolysaccharide?
A. Chitin
B. Inulin
C. Cellulose
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Homopolysaccharides are composed of a single type of monosaccharide.
Question 38: What is the primary function of starch?
A. Energy storage in plants
B. Structural component of plant cell walls
C. Energy storage in animals
D. Transport of nutrients
A. Energy storage in plants. Starch is stored in granules within plant cells.
Question 39: Which polysaccharide is a polymer of fructose?
A. Cellulose
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Inulin
D. Inulin. Inulin is a polysaccharide composed of fructose units.
Question 40: Why does cellulose not react with iodine to give a blue color?
A. It does not have a helical structure.
B. It is composed of a different type of monosaccharide.
C. It is insoluble in water.
D. It is a branched molecule.
A. It does not have a helical structure. The lack of a helical structure prevents cellulose from trapping iodine molecules.
Question 41: What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?
A. Amino acids
B. Nucleotides
C. Monosaccharides
D. Fatty acids
B. Nucleotides. Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide?
A. Phosphate group
B. Pentose sugar
C. Amino acid
D. Nitrogenous base
C. Amino acid. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, not nucleic acids.
Question 43: Which nitrogenous bases are classified as purines?
A. Adenine and guanine
B. Cytosine and thymine
C. Adenine and thymine
D. Guanine and cytosine
A. Adenine and guanine. Purines have a double-ring structure.
Question 44: Which type of sugar is found in DNA?
A. Ribose
B. Deoxyribose
C. Glucose
D. Fructose
B. Deoxyribose. Deoxyribose lacks an oxygen atom compared to ribose.
Question 45: Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil
D. Uracil. Uracil replaces thymine in RNA.
Question 46: What is the primary function of nucleic acids?
A. Energy storage
B. Structural support
C. Transport of molecules
D. Storage of genetic information
D. Storage of genetic information. DNA and RNA carry the instructions for building and maintaining an organism.
Question 47: What type of bond links nucleotides together in a nucleic acid chain?
A. Peptide bond
B. Glycosidic bond
C. Phosphodiester bond
D. Hydrogen bond
C. Phosphodiester bond. Phosphodiester bonds link the phosphate group of one nucleotide to the sugar of another.
Question 48: Which nitrogenous bases are classified as pyrimidines?
A. Adenine and guanine
B. Cytosine and thymine
C. Adenine and thymine
D. Guanine and cytosine
B. Cytosine and thymine. Pyrimidines have a single-ring structure.
Question 49: Which type of sugar is found in RNA?
A. Ribose
B. Deoxyribose
C. Glucose
D. Fructose
A. Ribose. Ribose is a pentose sugar.
Question 50: What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
A. Nucleosides contain a phosphate group while nucleotides do not.
B. Nucleotides contain a phosphate group while nucleosides do not.
C. Nucleosides are found in DNA while nucleotides are found in RNA.
D. Nucleotides are the building blocks of proteins.
B. Nucleotides contain a phosphate group while nucleosides do not. Nucleosides consist of a nitrogenous base and a sugar.
Question 51: What determines the primary structure of a protein?
A. The sequence of amino acids
B. The folding pattern of the polypeptide chain
C. The arrangement of multiple subunits
D. The presence of disulfide bonds
A. The sequence of amino acids. The primary structure is simply the order of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
Question 52: What type of secondary structure is commonly found in proteins?
A. Alpha-helix
B. Beta-sheet
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B. Alpha-helices and beta-sheets are common secondary structures stabilized by hydrogen bonds.
Question 53: What level of protein structure describes the three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide chain?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
C. Tertiary. The tertiary structure is the overall 3D shape of the polypeptide chain.
Question 54: What type of bond is important for stabilizing the tertiary structure of a protein?
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Disulfide bonds
C. Ionic interactions
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Various interactions, including hydrogen bonds, disulfide bonds, and ionic interactions, contribute to the stability of the tertiary structure.
Question 55: What level of protein structure describes the arrangement of multiple polypeptide subunits?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
D. Quaternary. Some proteins consist of multiple polypeptide chains interacting with each other.
Question 56: What is the term for the amino acid at the beginning of a polypeptide chain?
A. C-terminal amino acid
B. N-terminal amino acid
C. Central amino acid
D. None of the above
B. N-terminal amino acid. The N-terminal amino acid has a free amino group.
Question 57: What is the term for the amino acid at the end of a polypeptide chain?
A. C-terminal amino acid
B. N-terminal amino acid
C. Central amino acid
D. None of the above
A. C-terminal amino acid. The C-terminal amino acid has a free carboxyl group.
Question 58: Why is the tertiary structure of a protein important?
A. It determines the protein’s function.
B. It allows the protein to interact with other molecules.
C. It provides stability to the protein.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. The tertiary structure is crucial for the protein’s activity and interactions.
Question 59: How many subunits are present in a molecule of adult human hemoglobin?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
C. 4. Hemoglobin consists of two alpha subunits and two beta subunits.
Question 60: Which of the following is NOT true about the secondary structure of proteins?
A. It involves hydrogen bonding between amino acids.
B. It includes alpha-helices and beta-sheets.
C. It determines the sequence of amino acids.
D. It contributes to the overall folding of the polypeptide chain.
C. It determines the sequence of amino acids. The sequence of amino acids is the primary structure.
Question 61: What is the primary function of enzymes?
A. To store genetic information
B. To provide structural support
C. To transport molecules
D. To catalyze biochemical reactions
D. To catalyze biochemical reactions. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions within cells.
Question 62: What is the term for the specific region of an enzyme where the substrate binds?
A. Allosteric site
B. Active site
C. Binding pocket
D. Catalytic domain
B. Active site. The active site is where the substrate interacts with the enzyme.
Question 63: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of enzymes?
A. They are highly specific.
B. They are not consumed in the reaction.
C. They increase the activation energy of a reaction.
D. They can be regulated.
C. They increase the activation energy of a reaction. Enzymes lower the activation energy, making the reaction easier to start.
Question 64: What is the main difference between enzyme catalysts and inorganic catalysts?
A. Enzyme catalysts are more efficient.
B. Enzyme catalysts are more specifi
C. C. Enzyme catalysts require higher temperatures.
D. Enzyme catalysts are not affected by pH.
B. Enzyme catalysts are more specific. Enzymes typically catalyze only one or a few specific reactions.
Question 65: What is a ribozyme?
A. An enzyme made of RNA
B. An enzyme made of protein
C. An enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of RNA
D. An enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA
A. An enzyme made of RNA. Ribozymes are catalytic RNA molecules.
Question 66: What is the difference between a physical change and a chemical change?
A. Physical changes are reversible, while chemical changes are not.
B. Physical changes involve the formation of new substances, while chemical changes do not.
C. Physical changes involve changes in the composition of matter, while chemical changes do not.
D. Physical changes involve the absorption or release of energy, while chemical changes do not.
A. Physical changes are reversible, while chemical changes are not. In a chemical change, the composition of matter is altered.
Question 67: How does temperature affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. Increasing temperature increases the rate of reaction.
B. Increasing temperature decreases the rate of reaction.
C. Temperature has no effect on the rate of reaction.
D. The effect of temperature depends on the specific reaction.
A. Increasing temperature increases the rate of reaction. Higher temperatures increase the kinetic energy of molecules, leading to more collisions.
Question 68: What is a metabolic pathway?
A. A series of chemical reactions that occur in a specific sequence
B. A single chemical reaction that occurs in isolation
C. A random series of chemical reactions with no specific order
D. A chemical reaction that occurs outside of the cell
A. A series of chemical reactions that occur in a specific sequence. Metabolic pathways involve a series of interconnected reactions.
Question 69: What is the term for the final product of a metabolic pathway?
A. Substrate
B. Intermediate
C. End product
D. Reactant
C. End product. The end product is the final molecule produced in a metabolic pathway.
Question 70: Which of the following is NOT true about chemical reactions?
A. They involve the breaking and forming of chemical bonds.
B. They can be exergonic or endergoni
C. C. They always require enzymes to occur.
D. They can be influenced by temperature and pH.
C. They always require enzymes to occur. While enzymes speed up reactions, many reactions can occur spontaneously, albeit at a slower rate.
Question 71: What is the first step in enzyme catalysis?
A. Formation of the enzyme-product complex
B. Formation of the transition state
C. Binding of the substrate to the enzyme’s active site
D. Release of the product
C. Binding of the substrate to the enzyme’s active site. The substrate must first bind to the enzyme before the reaction can proceed.
Question 72: What is the term for the unstable state that a substrate must pass through during a chemical reaction?
A. Enzyme-substrate complex
B. Transition state
C. Intermediate state
D. Activated complex
B. Transition state. The transition state is a high-energy state that the substrate must reach to be converted into product.
Question 73: How do enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. By increasing the activation energy
B. By decreasing the activation energy
C. By changing the equilibrium constant
D. By providing additional energy
B. By decreasing the activation energy. Enzymes lower the energy barrier that the substrate must overcome.
Question 74: What is the term for the energy required to reach the transition state?
A. Free energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy
D. Activation energy
D. Activation energy. Activation energy is the energy needed to initiate a chemical reaction.
Question 75: Which of the following is NOT true about the enzyme-substrate complex?
A. It is a transient complex.
B. It is highly specifi
C. C. It is formed after the product is release
D. D. It is essential for catalysis.
C. It is formed after the product is released. The enzyme-substrate complex is formed before the product is released.
Question 76: What is the term for the pH at which an enzyme exhibits maximum activity?
A. Optimal pH
B. Physiological pH
C. Neutral pH
D. Isoelectric pH
A. Optimal pH. Different enzymes have different optimal pH values.
Question 77: How does temperature affect enzyme activity?
A. Increasing temperature always increases enzyme activity.
B. Increasing temperature can increase enzyme activity up to a certain point, after which activity declines.
C. Temperature has no effect on enzyme activity.
D. Increasing temperature always decreases enzyme activity.
B. Increasing temperature can increase enzyme activity up to a certain point, after which activity declines. High temperatures can denature enzymes.
Question 78: What happens to enzyme activity when the substrate concentration is very high?
A. Enzyme activity continues to increase linearly.
B. Enzyme activity reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax).
C. Enzyme activity decreases.
D. Enzyme activity becomes zero.
B. Enzyme activity reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax). At high substrate concentrations, all enzyme active sites become saturated.
Question 79: What is the term for a molecule that binds to an enzyme and decreases its activity?
A. Activator
B. Cofactor
C. Inhibitor
D. Regulator
C. Inhibitor. Inhibitors can bind to the active site or an allosteric site.
Question 80: What is a competitive inhibitor?
A. An inhibitor that binds to the active site and competes with the substrate
B. An inhibitor that binds to an allosteric site and changes the enzyme’s shape
C. An inhibitor that destroys the enzyme
D. An inhibitor that increases the activation energy
A. An inhibitor that binds to the active site and competes with the substrate. Competitive inhibitors resemble the substrate in structure.
Question 81: How many major classes of enzymes are there?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
C. 6. Enzymes are classified into six major classes based on the type of reaction they catalyze.
Question 82: Which enzyme class catalyzes oxidation-reduction reactions?
A. Transferases
B. Hydrolases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Lyases
C. Oxidoreductases. Oxidoreductases catalyze the transfer of electrons between molecules.
Question 83: Which enzyme class catalyzes the transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another?
A. Transferases
B. Hydrolases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Lyases
A. Transferases. Transferases move functional groups between molecules.
Question 84: Which enzyme class catalyzes the breaking of bonds by adding water?
A. Transferases
B. Hydrolases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Lyases
B. Hydrolases. Hydrolases use water to break chemical bonds.
Question 85: Which enzyme class catalyzes the joining of two molecules?
A. Ligases
B. Hydrolases
C. Oxidoreductases
D. Lyases
A. Ligases. Ligases form new bonds between molecules.
Question 86: What is a cofactor?
A. A non-protein component required for enzyme activity
B. An inhibitor of enzyme activity
C. A protein component of an enzyme
D. A substrate for an enzyme
A. A non-protein component required for enzyme activity. Cofactors can be organic or inorganic molecules.
Question 87: What is the term for the protein part of an enzyme that requires a cofactor?
A. Holoenzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Coenzyme
D. Prosthetic group
B. Apoenzyme. The apoenzyme is inactive without the cofactor.
Question 88: What is a prosthetic group?
A. A loosely bound cofactor
B. A tightly bound cofactor
C. An inorganic cofactor
D. An organic cofactor
B. A tightly bound cofactor. Prosthetic groups are usually permanently associated with the enzyme.
Question 89: What is a coenzyme?
A. A loosely bound cofactor
B. A tightly bound cofactor
C. An inorganic cofactor
D. An organic cofactor
A. A loosely bound cofactor. Coenzymes often act as carriers of electrons or functional groups.
Question 90: Which of the following is NOT a type of cofactor?
A. Prosthetic group
B. Coenzyme
C. Metal ion
D. Activator
D. Activator. Activators are molecules that increase enzyme activity but are not considered cofactors.
Question 91: What is the role of metal ions as cofactors?
A. They can stabilize the enzyme’s structure.
B. They can participate in the catalytic reaction.
C. They can help bind the substrate.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Metal ions can play various roles in enzyme activity.
Question 92: Which vitamin is a component of the coenzyme NAD?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin
C. Niacin. Niacin is a precursor for NAD and NADP.
Question 93: What is the term for an enzyme with its cofactor bound?
A. Holoenzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Coenzyme
D. Prosthetic group
A. Holoenzyme. The holoenzyme is the complete, active enzyme.
Question 94: Which of the following is an example of a prosthetic group?
A. Heme
B. NAD
C. Mg2+
D. Zn2+
A. Heme. Heme is a prosthetic group found in enzymes like catalase and peroxidase.
Question 95: Which of the following is NOT true about coenzymes?
A. They are organic molecules.
B. They are tightly bound to the enzyme.
C. They can participate in multiple reactions.
D. They often contain vitamins.
B. They are tightly bound to the enzyme. Coenzymes are loosely bound and can be released after the reaction.
Question 96: Why are cofactors important for enzyme activity?
A. They can provide additional functional groups.
B. They can help stabilize the transition state.
C. They can help with substrate binding.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Cofactors play various essential roles in enzyme function.
Question 97: Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?
A. Heme
B. NAD
C. Mg2+
D. Zn2+
B. NAD. NAD is a coenzyme involved in redox reactions.
Question 98: Which mineral is a cofactor for the enzyme carboxypeptidase?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Zinc
D. Copper
C. Zinc. Zinc is a cofactor for carboxypeptidase, a protease enzyme.
Question 99: What happens to an enzyme when its cofactor is removed?
A. Its activity increases.
B. Its activity decreases.
C. Its activity remains the same.
D. It becomes more specific.
B. Its activity decreases. The cofactor is essential for the enzyme’s catalytic activity.
Question 100: Which of the following is NOT a function of prosthetic groups?
A. Transferring electrons
B. Binding substrates
C. Providing structural support
D. Increasing activation energy
D. Increasing activation energy. Prosthetic groups, like all cofactors, help decrease activation energy.