Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ. Multiple choice questions for Class 11 Chemistry on the Structure of Atom chapter, covering key concepts like atomic models and particles.
Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ topics:
- Early Atomic Models and Laws: MCQ 1–9
- Discovery of the Electron and its Properties: MCQ 10–18
- Discovery of Proton and Neutron: MCQ 19–26
- Thomson’s Atomic Model: MCQ 27–30
- Rutherford’s Nuclear Model: MCQ 31–37
- Atomic Number, Mass Number, Isotopes, and Isobars: MCQ 38–41
- Electromagnetic Radiation and Wave Nature of Light: MCQ 42–46
- Planck’s Quantum Theory and Photoelectric Effect: MCQ 47–52
- Atomic Spectra and Hydrogen Spectrum: MCQ 53–62
- Bohr’s Model for Hydrogen Atom: MCQ 63–75
- Wave-Particle Duality and Uncertainty Principle: MCQ 76–79
- Quantum Numbers and Atomic Orbitals: MCQ 80–88
- Principles of Electron Filling (Aufbau, Pauli, Hund): MCQ 89–94
- Electronic Configuration of Atoms: MCQ 95–100

Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQ – Online Test
Question 1: Who first proposed the existence of atoms as indivisible particles?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Indian and Greek philosophers, around 400 B.C., first proposed atoms as fundamental building blocks of matter.
Question 2: What was the original meaning of the word ‘atom’?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The word ‘atom’ is derived from the Greek word ‘a-tomio,’ meaning ‘indivisible’ or ‘uncut-able.’
Question 3: Which scientist proposed the atomic theory on a firm scientific basis in 1808?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. John Dalton proposed the atomic theory on a firm scientific basis in 1808.
Question 4: Dalton’s atomic theory helped explain which of the following laws?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. Dalton’s theory explained the Law of Conservation of Mass, the Law of Multiple Proportions, and the Law of Constant Composition.
Question 5: According to Dalton’s Atomic Theory, which law states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The Law of Conservation of Mass states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Question 6: Which law is based on the observation that a chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportions by mass?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The Law of Constant Composition is based on this observation.
Question 7: The Law of Multiple Proportions states that:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The Law of Multiple Proportions states that elements can form more than one compound in different proportions.
Question 8: Dalton’s atomic theory failed to explain the behavior of which of the following?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Dalton’s atomic theory could not explain the behavior of electrically charged substances like glass or ebonite when rubbed with silk or fur.
Question 9: Who discovered that electricity passed through an electrolyte results in chemical reactions at the electrodes?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Michael Faraday showed this phenomenon in 1830.
Question 10: Cathode rays were discovered using which experimental setup?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Cathode Ray Discharge Tube experiment led to the discovery of cathode rays.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a property of cathode rays?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Cathode rays originate from the cathode and move towards the anode.
Question 12: What conclusion was drawn from the cathode ray experiment regarding the structure of the atom?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The cathode ray experiment showed that atoms are made up of subatomic particles, specifically electrons.
Question 13: J.J. Thomson discovered the charge to mass ratio of the electron using what type of experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Thomson discovered the charge to mass ratio of the electron using the Cathode Ray Tube Experiment.
Question 14: The charge to mass ratio of the electron is measured as:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The charge to mass ratio of the electron is $1.758820 \times 10^{11}$ C kg⁻¹.
Question 15: Which factor does NOT influence the deflection of electrons in Thomson’s experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. The charge of the positive electrode does not directly influence the deflection of electrons.
Question 16: Who determined the charge on the electron using the oil drop experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. R.A. Millikan determined the charge on the electron using the oil drop experiment.
Question 17: The charge on the electron was measured to be:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The charge on the electron is –$1.602176 \times 10^{-19}$ C.
Question 18: The mass of the electron was calculated by combining Millikan’s result with Thomson’s charge to mass ratio. What is the mass of the electron?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The mass of the electron is $9.1094 \times 10^{-31}$ kg.
Question 19: Protons were first observed in experiments involving what type of rays?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Protons were first observed in experiments involving canal rays.
Question 20: The mass of a proton compared to that of an electron is approximately:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The mass of a proton is approximately 2000 times greater than that of an electron.
Question 21: Which scientist is credited with the discovery of the neutron?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932.
Question 22: Neutrons were discovered by bombarding which material with alpha particles?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Neutrons were discovered by bombarding a thin sheet of beryllium with alpha particles.
Question 23: Which of the following correctly describes the characteristics of protons?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Protons have a mass similar to that of neutrons.
Question 24: In what year were protons first characterized as positively charged particles?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Protons were first characterized as positively charged particles in 1919.
Question 25: Neutrons have which of the following properties?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Neutrons have no charge and a mass slightly greater than that of protons.
Question 26: Which experiment led to the discovery of positively charged particles (protons)?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. The Canal Ray Experiment led to the discovery of positively charged particles (protons).
Question 27: In Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model, the atom is described as:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model describes the atom as a sphere of positive charge with electrons scattered inside.
Question 28: Which of the following is a limitation of Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Thomson’s model failed to explain the results of later experiments, like Rutherford’s scattering experiment.
Question 29: Thomson’s model visualizes the atom as:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Thomson’s model visualizes the atom as a positively charged pudding with negative electrons embedded.
Question 30: Which experiment led to the eventual discrediting of Thomson’s model?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Rutherford’s Gold Foil Experiment led to the eventual discrediting of Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model.
Question 31: Rutherford’s Nuclear Model of the atom was based on which famous experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Rutherford’s Nuclear Model was based on the Gold Foil Experiment.
Question 32: What was the major observation from Rutherford’s Gold Foil Experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Most alpha particles passed through the foil with no deflection, suggesting that most of the atom is empty space.
Question 33: What did Rutherford conclude about the structure of the atom from his experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Rutherford concluded that atoms consist mainly of empty space, with a small, dense nucleus.
Question 34: In Rutherford’s model, the nucleus is described as:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The nucleus is described as small, dense, and positively charged.
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT a conclusion of Rutherford’s experiment?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Rutherford’s experiment did not lead to the discovery of neutrons; they were discovered later by Chadwick.
Question 36: Rutherford’s model was unable to explain which of the following?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Rutherford’s model was unable to explain the arrangement of electrons around the nucleus.
Question 37: What feature of Rutherford’s model resembles the solar system?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Rutherford’s model resembles the solar system, with the nucleus as the Sun and electrons revolving like planets.
Question 38: The atomic number of an element is defined as the number of:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The atomic number is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
Question 39: What does the mass number of an atom represent?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The mass number represents the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
Question 40: Isobars are atoms with:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Isobars are atoms with the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
Question 41: Isotopes of an element differ in the number of:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Isotopes of an element differ in the number of neutrons.
Question 42: Which theory explains the wave nature of light?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Maxwell’s Electromagnetic Theory explains the wave nature of light.
Question 43: What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The speed of light in a vacuum is $3.0 \times 10^8$ m/s.
Question 44: The relationship between frequency ($\nu$), wavelength ($\lambda$), and speed of light (c) is given by which equation?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and the speed of light is given by the equation c = $\nu\lambda$.
Question 45: Electromagnetic radiation consists of:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Electromagnetic radiation consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
Question 46: Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible to the human eye?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. The visible light portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible to the human eye.
Question 47: Planck’s Quantum Theory proposed that energy is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Planck’s Quantum Theory proposed that energy is quantized, meaning it comes in discrete amounts.
Question 48: The smallest unit of electromagnetic energy, according to Planck, is called a:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The smallest unit of electromagnetic energy is called a photon.
Question 49: Which experiment demonstrated the particle nature of light by ejecting electrons from a metal surface?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The Photoelectric Effect demonstrated the particle nature of light by ejecting electrons from a metal surface.
Question 50: Who provided the explanation of the photoelectric effect using Planck’s Quantum Theory?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Albert Einstein explained the photoelectric effect using Planck’s Quantum Theory.
Question 51: The energy of a photon is related to its:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. The energy of a photon is related to its frequency and wavelength.
Question 52: Which of the following statements about the photoelectric effect is true?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. No electrons are emitted below a certain threshold frequency, specific to each metal.
Question 53: Emission spectra occur when:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Emission spectra occur when atoms release energy and return to a lower energy state.
Question 54: Which series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to visible light?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Balmer series corresponds to the visible light region of the hydrogen spectrum.
Question 55: Which element was first discovered through its spectrum in the Sun?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Helium was first discovered through its spectrum in the Sun.
Question 56: The Rydberg formula is used to predict the wavelengths of:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: D. The Rydberg formula is used to predict the wavelengths of hydrogen spectral lines.
Question 57: Which of the following statements is true regarding atomic line spectra?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Each element has a unique line spectrum.
Question 58: What does a line spectrum indicate about the energy levels in an atom?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. A line spectrum indicates that energy levels in an atom are quantized.
Question 59: In which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does the Lyman series of hydrogen spectral lines appear?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Lyman series of hydrogen spectral lines appears in the ultraviolet region.
Question 60: The Paschen series of hydrogen spectral lines appears in which region?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Paschen series appears in the infrared region.
Question 61: Who first observed and studied the line spectrum of hydrogen?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Johann Balmer first observed and studied the line spectrum of hydrogen.
Question 62: What is the significance of the Rydberg constant in atomic spectra?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Rydberg constant is used to predict the wavelengths of hydrogen spectral lines.
Question 63: According to Bohr’s Model, the electron in a hydrogen atom moves in:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. According to Bohr’s Model, the electron in a hydrogen atom moves in fixed circular orbits around the nucleus.
Question 64: Bohr’s model of the atom is based on which of the following concepts?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Bohr’s model is based on the concept that electrons exist in quantized orbits around the nucleus.
Question 65: Which of the following postulates is NOT part of Bohr’s Model?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The energy of an electron decreases as it moves closer to the nucleus, not increases.
Question 66: The energy absorbed or emitted during a transition between two energy levels is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The energy absorbed or emitted during a transition is equal to the difference between the energies of the two levels.
Question 67: Bohr’s model explains the stability of the atom by assuming that:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Bohr’s model assumes that electrons do not radiate energy while in stable orbits, explaining the stability of the atom.
Question 68: Which of the following is a limitation of Bohr’s Model?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. A limitation of Bohr’s Model is that it applies only to atoms with one electron, such as hydrogen.
Question 69: In Bohr’s model, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. In Bohr’s model, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is inversely proportional to n².
Question 70: What is the energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen (n = 1)?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen (n = 1) is –$2.18 \times 10^{-18}$ J.
Question 71: In Bohr’s Model, the ground state refers to the electron’s:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. In Bohr’s Model, the ground state refers to the electron being in the first orbit (n = 1).
Question 72: Bohr’s model can also be applied to which of the following types of ions?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Bohr’s model can be applied to hydrogen-like ions such as He⁺ and Li²⁺.
Question 73: For hydrogen-like ions, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. For hydrogen-like ions, the energy of the electron in the nth orbit is directly proportional to Z².
Question 74: The radius of the electron orbit in hydrogen-like ions is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The radius of the electron orbit in hydrogen-like ions is inversely proportional to Z.
Question 75: Which of the following expressions represents the energy levels for hydrogen-like ions (with atomic number Z)?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The energy levels for hydrogen-like ions are given by the expression $E_n = –2.18 \times 10^{-18} Z/n^2$.
Question 76: The wave-particle duality of matter was proposed by:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Louis de Broglie proposed the wave-particle duality of matter.
Question 77: Which principle states that the exact position and momentum of a particle cannot be simultaneously determined?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that the exact position and momentum of a particle cannot be simultaneously determined.
Question 78: According to the de Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of a particle is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its mass.
Question 79: The de Broglie wavelength is significant for which type of particles?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The de Broglie wavelength is significant for subatomic particles, such as electrons.
Question 80: The principal quantum number (n) defines:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The principal quantum number defines the size and energy of an orbital.
Question 81: The azimuthal quantum number (l) determines:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The azimuthal quantum number determines the shape of an orbital.
Question 82: For a given principal quantum number (n), the possible values of the azimuthal quantum number (l) range from:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. For a given principal quantum number (n), the possible values of the azimuthal quantum number (l) range from 0 to n-1.
Question 83: The magnetic quantum number ($m_l$) represents:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The magnetic quantum number represents the orientation of the orbital in space.
Question 84: For an s-orbital, the azimuthal quantum number (l) is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. For an s-orbital, the azimuthal quantum number (l) is 0.
Question 85: The p-orbitals have how many possible orientations?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The p-orbitals have 3 possible orientations.
Question 86: The spin quantum number ($m_s$) has which possible values?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The spin quantum number ($m_s$) has the possible values +½ or –½.
Question 87: Which orbital type has a dumbbell shape?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The p-orbital has a dumbbell shape.
Question 88: The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an orbital is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an orbital is 2.
Question 89: The Aufbau principle states that electrons are added to orbitals in order of:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. The Aufbau principle states that electrons are added to orbitals in order of increasing orbital energy.
Question 90: According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle, no two electrons in the same atom can have the same:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of quantum numbers.
Question 91: Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity states that:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity states that electrons must occupy orbitals singly before pairing.
Question 92: According to Hund’s Rule, which of the following configurations is correct for a p orbital?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. According to Hund’s Rule, the electrons will occupy each p orbital singly (↑ ↑ ↑) before pairing.
Question 93: The Aufbau principle explains the arrangement of electrons in:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The Aufbau principle explains that electrons occupy the most stable and lowest energy configuration.
Question 94: Which rule ensures that electrons in an atom minimize repulsion by occupying separate orbitals?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Hund’s Rule ensures that electrons in an atom minimize repulsion by occupying separate orbitals.
Question 95: The electronic configuration of an atom describes:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. The electronic configuration describes the arrangement of electrons in an atom’s orbitals.
Question 96: The electronic configuration of oxygen (atomic number 8) is:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The electronic configuration of oxygen is 1s² 2s² 2p⁴.
Question 97: What is the electronic configuration of sodium (atomic number 11)?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The electronic configuration of sodium is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹.
Question 98: Which element has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Phosphorus has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³.
Question 99: The element with an atomic number of 10 has the electronic configuration:
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: A. The element with atomic number 10 (neon) has the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶.
Question 100: Which of the following elements has a half-filled p-orbital in its ground state?
Show Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Nitrogen (N) has a half-filled p-orbital in its ground state (1s² 2s² 2p³).